"Open my eyes that I may see
wonderful things in your law" (Psalm 119:18) When Spirit of Truth Comes
In To
Your Life He Will Lead
You to ALL the Truth." (John 16: 13)
The original is in the Black text & refuted material is in & IN UPPER CASE
Some notes and comments on various Biblical texts some have used to promote the doctrine of the Trinity. The main approach that will be used to arrive at a proper balanced view of these texts is based on the FACT that the Bible interprets itself.
AS THE ABOVE STATEMENT SAYS = WE WILL LITERALLY BE DOING EXACTLY THAT - THERE WILL BE SO MUCH BIBLE CITED SO THAT YOU CAN GET THE BIG PICTURE OF WHAT GOD'S WORD IS REALLY SAYING.
Matthew 1:23
"Look! The virgin will become pregnant and will give birth to a son, and they will call his name Im·man'u·el," which means, when translated, "With Us Is God."
Some say that this text means that Jesus is God, because the title "Immanuel" that is applied to Jesus, means "With Us Is God." Is this a proper Biblical line of reasoning?
BY NOW YOU WOULD HAVE REALIZED IT - BUT - SOME DO NOT SAY ANYTHING WORD OF GOD TELLS US THAT "IMMANUEL" MEANS "WITH US IS GOD" - HOW CAN WE ARGUE AGAINST GODS WORD? UNLESS WE WANT TO MAKE IT MEAN SOMETHING ELSE.
A title is just that, a title. Immanuel was NOT the name that Mary was instructed to give her son. Verse 21 says: "She will give birth to a son, and you must call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins."
BUT GOD TOLD US THAT JESUS WILL BE GOD IN HUMAN FORM FOR ARGUMENTS SAKE LETS SAY I AM A KING & I TELL EVERYONE THAT MY SON AS SOON AS HE IS BORN
"HE WILL BE KNOW AS THE KING".
THIS IS HIS TITLE OK BUT DOES THE NAME "JOHN" MAKE HIM ANY LESS "KING" ??
JUST BECAUSE I "NAMED" HIM JOHN? NOT AT ALL = RIGHT = HE IS "THE KING" & HE IS ALSO "JOHN"
BOTH ARE "TITLES" IF WE WANT TO GET TECHNICAL ABOUT IT, BUT HE IS STILL A RULER BY "AUTHORITY" & HE IS JOHN BY HIS NAME.
SAME REASONING THEN TELLS US
THAT BY THIS TITLE "IMMANUEL" WHICH MEANS "GOD IS WITH US"
Yes, Jesus was the name Mary was to give him. Immanuel is the title others ("they", even Mary) would call him.
LETS USE THE AUTHORS OWN ARGUMENT HERE - THEN OTHERS - THAT MEANS YOU & ME & THIS AUTHOR & EVERYONE ELSE - MUST CALL JESUS BY HIS TITLE - RIGHT!!!
CONSIDERING THAT HIS TITLE IS "GOD IS WITH US" - THEN I ASK YOU - WHAT MUST WE CALL JESUS??
Next, to say that because Immanuel, which means "With Us is God," proves that the one who possessed this title (Jesus) WAS actually God, is rash. Why? -Because one would ALSO have to say "Jehu WAS Jehovah." For the name Jehu means: "Jehovah is he." So do we conclude that Jehu is actually Jehovah because his name means "Jehovah is he"? NO. Neither is Jesus God because his title, Immanuel means, "With us is God."
ONLY BECAUSE IT DOES NOT FIT THEIR TEACHING BUT THE WORD OF GOD SAYS THAT HE IS GOD
HE HAS A "TITLE" CALLED "GOD IS WITH US" THIS THEN MAKES HIM GOD! AUTHORS OWN REASONING - OK!!
Remember the prophecy at Isaiah 7:4 which says: "Therefore Jehovah himself will give YOU men a sign: Look! The maiden herself will actually become pregnant, and she is giving birth to a son, and she will certainly call his name Im·man'u·el." Here we are told, that both the virgin birth, and the appearance of the son, who would be called by the title "Immanuel," would be a "sign" from Jehovah, and not literally Jehovah himself.
THE AUTHOR HAS NOW TOLD US THAT THE CHILD AND THE
VIRGIN BIRTH WOULD BE CALLED
IMMANUEL THE
HIGHLIGHTED WORD (call) TELLS US THAT THE CHILD WILL BE
"CALLED" IMMANUEL- &
NOT HIS VIRGIN BIRTH.
ARE WE MAKING IT UP NOW OR WHAT!! ARE YOU ABLE TO FIND THAT INFORMATION IN THE ISAIAH PASSAGE??
MARY WILL "ONLY" "CALL" HER NEW BORN SON "IMMANUEL."
DEAR READERS SEE WHAT I MEAN BY READING SOMETHING THAT ISNT THERE.
Yes, this designation identifies Jesus as the promised Messiah, the one sent from Jehovah, the means by which Jehovah would offer salvation to the World of Mankind. (John 3:16)
SO TRUE - & HE IS CALLED "GOD IS WITH US"
Matthew 3:3
Please see comments at Isaiah 40:3
Matthew 3:16,17
"After being baptized Jesus immediately came up from the water; and, look! the heavens were opened up, and he saw descending like a dove Gods spirit coming upon him. Look! Also, there was a voice from the heavens that said: "This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved."
LETS SEE HOW IT READS IN KJV
"AND JESUS, WHEN HE WAS BAPTIZED, WENT UP STRAIGHT OUT OF THE WATER: AND, LO, THE HEAVENS WERE OPENED UNTO HIM, AND HE SAW THE "SPIRIT OF GOD" DESCENDING "LIKE A DOVE" AND LIGHTING UPON HIM: 17 AND LO A VOICE FROM HEAVEN SAYING, THIS IS MY BELOVED SON, IN WHOM I AM WELL PLEASED.
DO YOU SEE THE SLIGHT DIFFERENCE HERE? THE HIGHLIGHTED WORDS WILL HELP.
This verse is often used to try to prove the idea that the only true God is 3 persons. The reality is, that this verse at best, identifies 2 persons, and something that looked like a dove.
THE VERSE SAYS THAT SPIRIT OF GOD DESCENDING LIKE A DOVE" IS IT SOMETHING THAT LOOKED LIKE A DOVE OR WAS IT LIKE A DOVE? MAKE YOUR OWN DECISION -
Hardly a proof text of three individuals being one God.
OK THERE IS (1) SON (2) SPIRIT OF GOD (see also Luke 3:22) (3) VOICE SPEAKING FROM HEAVEN 3 PERSONS TO ME.
But let's tear into this a bit deeper shall we?
AS USUAL WE HAVE TO FIND SOMETHING NEW!!
The setting is obviously Jesus' baptism. - Upon his coming up out of the waters, "the heavens were opened up to him." What does this mean? This shows that it was upon his presentation to do his Father's will, at that time and from there on, that Jehovah "opened the heavens up to him.", or revealed his deep purposes in a way that the Son had not realized before.
SO UNTRUE!! IN LUKE 2:42 when Jesus was only 12 He astonished the teaches of the law HE KNEW BACK THEN WHAT HIS PURPOSE WAS BUT HAD TO WAIT UNTIL TIME WAS RIGHT FOR HIS MINISTRY.
WHICH ACCORDING TO JEWISH LAW WAS AT AGE 30 - SEE NUMBERS 4:47 - NO LEVITE WAS CONSIDERED MATURE UNTIL HE REACHED 30 YEARS OF AGE. JESUS HAD TO FULFIL EVERY PART OF THE LAW & THIS WAS JUST ONE SMALL BUT VERY IMPORTANT PART OF JEWISH LAW. THE RETIRING AGE WAS 50, YOU CA READ ALL BOUT IT IN NUMBERS!!
Jesus no doubt now, fully remembered his previous
heavenly life and now fully understood his purpose for coming to the earth.
JESUS STARTED HIS MINISTRY
AT AGE 30 BECAUSE THIS WAS THE AGE THAT EVERY JEWISH PERSON WAS READY FOR
THEIR MINISTRY (Numbers 4:47).
This is indicated by fact that it was at this time that
God's holy spirit, (NOTE HERE IT IS GODS
HOLY SPIRIT THAT COME UPON JESUS AUTHORS OWN WORDS THIS IS SO IMPORTANT)
came down upon him as a dove.
How can we arrive at this conclusion? The Bible often
uses the term "opened up" or words to that effect, to indicate a revealed
understand of something. One example of this is found
at Acts 26:17,18 "while I deliver you from [this] people and from the nations,
to whom I am sending you, to open their eyes, to turn them from darkness
to light and from the authority of Satan to God, in order for them to receive
forgiveness of sins and an inheritance among those sanctified by [their]
faith in me.'"
Another is found at Luke 24:44 which reads: "Then he opened up their minds fully to grasp the meaning of the Scriptures."
THIS PASSAGE HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH THE PASSAGE IN DISCUSSION. WE CAN USE THE SAME WORD TO "OPEN" THE TIN CAN OF FOOD SO TO SEE WHAT IS INSIDE i.e.. REVEAL THE CONTENTS TO US BUT IT DOESNT CORRESPOND TO THIS SUBJECT.
Thus Jesus had the heavens "revealed to him." God needs no one to reveal anything to him.
IS THIS WHAT THE PASSAGE SAYS NOT AT ALL THIS WAS DONE SO TO "FULFIL" EVERYTHING THAT WAS WRITTEN IN "OT" (Judges 3:9-10; Isaiah 42:1-2 0 see what verse 2 says). JESUS CAME TO "FULFIL" EVERYTHING THAT WAS WRITTEN ABOUT HIM IN OT. & BY PROPHETS THEREFORE THIS HAD TO HAPPEN TO FULFIL THAT OT SCRIPTURE (SEE MATTHEW 5:17-18 & LUKE 16:17).
Jesus new all the time what heavens were like as He is the one who created them. he cam down from His Heavenly throne & became a man so to redeem His people from sin. Philippians 2:6 Titus 3:4 etc etc.
Next, the Father from spoke and said : "This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved."
LETS SEE HOW THE KJV TRANSLATES THIS PASSAGE ".. THIS IS MY BELOVED SON, IN WHOM I AM "WELL PLEASED".
NOTE THE DIFFERENCE IN WORDS KJV TELLS US THAT GOD WAS "WELL PLEASED" WITH HIS SON & NWT STATES " WHOM I HAVE APPROVED" THERE IS MISS TRANSLATION OF THIS WORD.
TO APPROVE & TO BE PLEASED OF HAS TOTALLY DIFFERENT MEANING. DOESNT IT? (When we take a look in KIT also we find that the word is translated as "I found good pleasure" - but it is rendered as "I have approved" wouldnt you say that there is something fishy going on here? HMMMM
This leads to the question: "If Jesus was God, why would the Father need to "approve" the Son?"
There is no need to "approve" anything as the words are again miss translated in NWT - use the right words as they a re in the original Greek text & there is no need to do anything.
It is obvious then, that Jesus was Not God, [NOT TRUE] but rather, Jesus was who the voice said Jesus was, his "Son." The word "son" is defined as "produce, offspring." The word "father" means: "life-giver, originator, creator." Thus Jesus was the Son of the Father (2 John 3) in that he had a life-giver of which he is the offspring.
EXCEPT THAT JESUS IS THE LIFE GIVER IN HIS "SPIRIT" FORM THAT IS HE IS THE ONE WHO CREATED EVERYTHING (John 1:3- COLOSSIANS 1:16)
IN HIS HUMAN FORM HE IS THE LIFE
GIVER TO ANYONE
WHO BELIEVES IN HIM.
IN ISAIAH 9:6 JESUS IS CALLED "ETERNAL FATHER" THAT MEANS THAT EVEN IN HIS HUMAN FORM HE GIVES "ETERNAL LIFE" TO ANY WHO BELIEVE IN HIM.
THEREFORE NOT ONLY IS HE A SON TO HIS FATHER BUT HE IS THE "ETERNAL FATHER" TO ALL BELIEVERS AS HE GIVES THEM THIS ETERNAL LIFE.
JESUS HAS "DUEL" ROLE & HE DOES IT SO WELL.
Matthew 28:18,19
"And Jesus approached and spoke to them, saying: "All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth. Go therefore and make disciples of people of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit."
Some say that verse 19 uses a singular "name" with regard to the three persons of the Godhead, thereby identifying them as "3 persons who are all called by one name, Jehovah." Is this sound reasoning?
HERE WE GO AGAIN SOME SAY" THE WORD OF GOD "STATES IT"
JESUS HIMSELF TELLS HIS DISCIPLES TO GO & BAPTIZE IN THE NAME OF (1) FATHER (2) THE SON & (3) THE HOLY SPIRIT!!!
BUT THE AUTHOR HAS TO DO SOMETHING TO EVERY PASSAGE THAT DOES NOT AGREE WITH HIS TEACHING.
PLEASE NOTE THAT THE WORD IS "NAME" & NOT "NAMES"
BUT WE HAVE TO GO ON SOME WHERE ELSE AGAIN & AGAIN!! WHY CAN'T WE ACCEPT THE WORDS THAT JESUS USES - HE DOES NOT LIE TO US. HE HAD HIMSELF CRUCIFIED ON THE CROSS FOR OUR SAKES - SO THE LAST THING HE WOULD DO IS LIE TO US!!
We can be better helped to understand this verse by peering into the meaning of the Greek word translated "name," and then looking else where for its use in the Bible.
The Greek word translated "name" here is "onoma." It means "in the power of, or in the authority of." It is like we might say in the English "Stop! In the name of the Law!" Now are we to conclude that the "law" has a literal name like "Henry or Bobby or Judy"? No, of course not. It simply refers to the power or authority by which one would have the right to stop another individual. WE AGREE COMPLETELY
So too here in verse 19. Notice that Jesus, in verse 18 says that he is "given all authority." Now stopping here for a moment, how can Jesus be "fully God" and be "given all authority?" He could not! For he already would possess it "IF" he were Fully God. And also, just whom would give God anything, let alone authority??
FIRST OF ALL = JESUS WAS SPEAKING IN HIS HUMAN FORM - SO WHAT HE WAS SAYING TO PEOPLE WHO WERE LISTENING TO HIM - WAS THIS - I JESUS IN HUMAN FORM Have the authority to tell you that you are no longer under the thumbs of the teaches of the Law & the Pharisees etc. Now you are to do as I have commanded you & NOT what THEY SAY!!
SECONDLY - THIS IS STATED FOR US HUMANS SO THAT WE UNDERSTAND THAT "HE" HAS ALL THE AUTHORITY.
JEWISH PEOPLE OF THAT TIME DIDNT BELIEVE IN HIM SO HE WAS "TELLING" (or informing) THEM I AM THE ONE THAT HAS ALL THE AUTHORITY IN HEAVEN & EARTH..
JESUS SAID "ALL" THE THINGS IN THE BIBLE FOR OUR BENEFIT & NOT FOR HIS BENEFIT, BUT MAN CONTINUALLY DENIES HIM.
WHAT IN EFFECT JESUS IS SAYING IS THIS - "YOU" DON'T HAVE TO BELIEVE ANY MAN ANYTHING HE SAYS - BUT YOU MUST BELIEVE ME AS I AM THE ONE THAT YOU WILL COME TO & BE JUDGED AFTER YOU DEATH.
NO HUMAN PERSON WILL BE JUDGING YOU - BUT I WILL - SO YOU BETTER LISTEN UP OK - OR ELSE YOU WILL NOT RESIDE IN MY KINGDOM WITH MY FATHER -
ARE YOU HEARING ME - OR ARE YOU LISTENING TO WHAT SOME MEN ARE TELLING YOU - THAT YOU MUST DO TO COME TO ME & MY FATHER.
DON'T LISTEN TO THEM- OK - I AM THE WAY THE TRUTH & THE LIFE & NOT THEM - OK !!!
FAIRLY BLUNT HEY - BUT TRUE - WHO DO YOU BELIEVE WILL BE YOUR FINAL JUDGE?? SEE JOHN 5: 22 - 23 =
THEN COME TO THE ONE WHO WILL BE YOU FINAL JUDGE & GET AWAY FROM THOSE WHO ARE DENYING HIS WORDS.
CAN I BE ANY MORE BLUNT THEN THAT? WELL I CAN - BUT I WILL NOT - :-))
Let's look at another usage of "onoma" in scripture and see how it is used. Acts 4:7 reads: "and they stood them in their midst and began to inquire: "By what power or in whose name did YOU do this?"
Here we see that the disciples were questioned concerning the "power" and "name" by which they did their acts. They went on to explain that they did so by the power or authority of Jesus, their leader.
So then the "name" by which disciples baptize new ones in, is in the submission
[this is so wrong Jesus has given us "FREE CHOICE TO CHOOSE" & NOT TO BE "SUBMITTED TO ANYTHING OR ANYONE] to the "power or authority" of: a) the Father, as The God of the Congregation (1 Cor. 8:6), then in the "power or authority" of b) the Son as the Lord or Mediator of the congregation (1 Cor. 8:6; 1 Tim. 2:5), and finally c) the "power or authority" of the holy spirit which is Gods active force [NOT SO HOLY SPIRIT IS GOD SEE ACTS 5:3-4] -(Gen. 1:2) which causes his will to be exercised and enforced.
NOW TO CONCLUDE THIS PASSAGE WE HAVE THE "AUTHORITY" TO BAPTIZE THE PEOPLE IN THE
NAME OF (1) FATHER (2) SON & (3) HOLY SPIRIT. JESUS' WORDS OK!!
ARE THERE ANY DISTINGUISHING FEATURES BETWEEN THE 3 PERSONS MENTIONED? THAT IS IS ANY ONE OF THEM GIVEN MORE PROMINENCE THEN THE OTHER?
NO !! THEY ARE ALL GIVEN SAME "EQUALITY" BY NATURE.
DISCIPLES WERE INSTRUCTED TO BAPTIZE THE NEW CONVERT IN THE NAME OF
NOTE THAT THERE IS NO
OTHER NAME WORD OF GOD DOESN'T TELL US THAT WE ARE TO BAPTIZE IN
THE NAME OF
JEHOVAH IN THE NAME OF SPIRIT
DRIVEN ORGANIZATION NOR DOES IT TELL US TO USE ONLY ONE OE THESE
3 PERSONS.
WE ARE TO USE THE 3 NAMES FATHER SON - & HOLY SPIRIT.
WE ARE NOT INSTRUCTED TO GIVE ANY ONE MORE OR LESS AUTHORITY.
PLEASE READ THE ENTIRE PASSAGES AS THEY ARE INTENDED & NOT AS YOU PLEASE SO TO SUIT YOUR OWN TEACHINGS. THIS IS GOING AGAINST THE WORD OF GOD.
JESUS SAID IN LUKE 22:9
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