"In answer Thomas said to him: "My Lord and my God!"

Some here believe that Thomas addressed Jesus as "His Lord and His God," and this means that
Jesus is Jehovah. Is this the case?

THOMAS DOES CALL JESUS HIS GOD! TAKE ANOTHER LOOK AT THE VERSE.

ANOTHER INTERESTING THING HERE IS - THAT GB TRANSLATING BODY DIDN'T RENDER THE WORD "KURIOS" AS JEHOVAH -  BUT AS LORD!!

Let us analyze this passage to determine its proper understanding.

We will look at this verse from three different angles:

THERE IS ONLY NEED TO LOOK AT IT FROM JESUS’ & THOMAS’ VIEWS = JESUS ACCEPTED THE GLORY – THAT IS HE DID NOT REBUKE HIM FOR THE USE OF THE WORD “GOD” & THOMAS USED THE WORD “GOD.”

WE WILL EXPLAIN IT IN MORE DETAIL AS WE GO ALONG.

First: The context here is dealing "not with whether or not Thomas believed Jesus to be God," [YES IT DOES - IF IT DIDN'T THEN WE WOULDN'T BE DISCUSSING IT - WOULD WE?] but whether or not the Father had resurrected Jesus [this has nothing to do with the subject at hand but to take you away from what Thomas said}. We learn this from verse 25. For when Jesus appeared to them within the locked room, Jesus encouraged Thomas: "Put your finger here, and see my hands, and take your hand and stick it into my side, and stop being unbelieving but become believing."

THIS VERSE TELLS US THAT THOMAS “NEEDED PROOF” FOR HIMSELF SO TO BE COMPLETELY SURE THAT JESUS WAS RESURRECTED. JUST SEEING JESUS WAS ENOUGH FOR THOMAS!

We don't know whether or not Thomas actually placed his finger into Jesus' side. The account does not say.

AT IS NOT IMPORTANT – WHAT IS IMPORTANT IS THIS – ONCE THOMAS SAW JESUS HE WENT THE WHOLE WAY & GAVE JESUS FULL GLORY AS HE KNEW HOW.

SEEING CONVINCED THOMAS & THAT’S ALL THAT HE NEEDED.

IN John 11:16 Thomas wanted to DIE with Jesus. THOMAS DIDN’T LACKED COURAGE – BUT HE WAS A REAL “PESSIMIST”. AT ALL TIMES HE HAD TO BE 110% SURE & WHEN HE GOT THE PROOF, HE DID NOT HOLD BACK.

But none the less, Jesus knew of Thomas' doubt concerning his resurrection. NOT his identity! That is why he said what he did in verse 27 above. Then, Thomas made his exclamation, of which Jesus replied: "Because you have seen me have you believed? Happy are those who do not see and yet believe."

BLESSED ARE WE  THAT WE BELIEVE & DO NOT SEE.  DO YOU BELIEVE - EVEN TOUGH YOU DO NOT SEE?

So then the context was dealing with the question of Jesus' resurrection, not his identity.

SO TRUE – ONCE THE “IDENTITY” WAS ESTABLISHED – THOMAS WAS EXTREMELY HAPPY TO GIVE GLORY TO HIS “GOD” & HE DID.

Yes, Jesus here gave us (and Thomas) an object lesson in "faith." Paul at 2 Corinthians 5:7 tells us: "for we are walking by faith, not by sight." True Christians walk by faith, not sight. This is why John went on to say what he did in the next verses of chapter 20 regarding the identity of just who it was that Thomas saw: "But these have been written down that YOU may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God, and that, because of believing, YOU may have life by means of his name." Yes we are to believe that Jesus is the "SON OF GOD." Not God. (1 John 4:15)

FOLKS WHEN YOU ARE AN OFFSPRING OF A HUMAN – THEN YOU ARE ONE OF THE SAME KIND – A HUMAN. THEREFORE – WHEN A PERSON IS CALLED A SON OF HUMAN -  THEN THEY ARE “HUMAN”.

SAME APPLIES TO GOD. IF YOU ARE THE SON OF “GOD” THEN YOU ARE OF THE SAME NATURE AS THE FATHER & THAT MAKES YOU “GOD”.

1 John 4:15 says. “ IF ANYONE ACKNOWLEDGES THAT JESUS IS THE SON OF GOD, GOD “LIVES” IN HIM & HE IN “GOD.”

DOES GOD LIVE IN YOU?   AS THIS PASSAGE TELLS US THAT HE DOES LIVE IN HIM WHO ACKNOWLEDGES JESUS AS HIS SON!

NOW FOLKS – IS JESUS GOING TO DENY HIMSELF – BIBLE TELLS US NO IN 2 TIMOTHY 2:11-13.

NOTE AGAIN! THAT 1 JOHN 4:15 TELLS US THAT WHEN WE ACKNOWLEDGE THAT JESUS IS THE SON OF GOD – GOD LIVES IN US & WE IN HIM. THEREFORE WHEN WE HAVE GOD LIVING IN US – GOD IS NOT GOING TO DENY HIMSELF. THIS BRINGS US TO A DILEMMA – DOESN’T IT? HOW CAN PEOPLE DENY JESUS IF THEY HAVE GOD LIVING IN THEM? HMMMM

WELL THEY CAN NOT! – SO IN WHOSE INTERESTS IS IT TO DENY JESUS HIS GLORY?? DO YOU KNOW THE ANSWER? YES OR NO?

IF YOU DO NOT – PLEASE READ REVELATION 16: 13-14. YOU WILL BE SURPRISED.

 Second: Because some feel that Thomas addressed Jesus as "HIS Lord and HIS God," are we to imagine that Thomas is lesser than, not equal to, Jesus, the one whom trinitarians think is Thomas' Lord and God? Trinitarians answer a resounding YES!!

WELL FOLKS – (1) “THOMAS” IS NOT EQUAL TO JESUS IN ANY WAY AS FAR AS JESUS' GODSHIP IS CONCERNED.

 (2) THOMAS IS EQUAL TO JESUS IN ONE RESPECT & THAT IS THEY BOTH HAVE HUMAN FLESH AT THIS TIME.

BUT IF THIS AUTHOR IS ALLUDING THAT ANY CHRISTIAN WILL SAY THAT “THOMAS” IS GOD – THEN HE IS COMPLETELY WRONG . PLEASE READ THE QUESTION CAREFULLY & YOU WILL SEE WHAT I MEAN. MAY BE IT IS TYPO ERROR I DO NOT KNOW, BUT THOMAS IS NOT GOD.

 Well then let us look at the same chapter of John and see what Jesus said in verse 17: "Jesus said to her: "Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, 'I am ascending to my Father and YOUR Father and to my God and YOUR God.'"

Here, by Jesus' own words, Jesus claims to have one who is HIS Father and HIS God! Thus Jesus is "lesser than, not equal to" the One whom he claims is His God, who is Jehovah.

THIS IS CALLED A SIGN OF RESPECT FROM SON “TO” HIS FATHER.

JESUS AT NO TIME WAS TO BIG NOTE HIMSELF [ISAIAH 42:2] . SO HE HONOURS HIS FATHER. (See Isaiah 42:2) ANYWAY – JESUS HAD EVERYTHING BY INHERITANCE & HE HAD NO NEED TO EXALT HIMSELF. IT WAS ALREADY HIS.

(compare Micah 5:4) Also we see that the SAME God and Father of Mary is Jesus' own God
and Father.    SEE LAST NOTE. & MALACHI 3:1 & MATTHEW 3: 3 IN NWT!

Some imagine that Jesus could make this statement because he had not yet gone to heaven. For when Jesus was resurrected back to heaven, he was once again equal to Jehovah in all respects, and no longer had one who was his God.

HE WAS ALWAYS GOD NO MATTER WHAT FORM HE WAS IN HUMAN OR SPIRIT.

Is this the true?  [YES IT IS!].  Let us look at Revelation 3:12 which reads: "The one that conquers- I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he will by no means go out [from it] anymore, and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem which descends out of heaven from my God, and that new name of mine." What does this verse teach us? That even IN HEAVEN, Jesus still has one who is God to him.

FOLKS THIS IS NOTHING NEW – JESUS’ FATHER IS HIS GOD.  JESUS SHOWS RESPECT TO HIS FATHER BY CALLING HIM ‘GOD’ JUST AS THE FATHER SHOWS RESPECT TO THE SON BY CALLING HIM ‘GOD’. Hebrews 1:8.

WE HUMANS SHOW RESPECT TO OUR FATHERS.

JESUS CALLS HIS FATHER “FATHER” & NOT JEHOVAH AS WT TEACHES, HE CALLS HIS FATHER “GOD” BECAUSE THE FATHER IS GOD BY NATURE.

WHAT ELSE IS HE TO CALL HIM?  A FISH – A STAR OR WHAT?

COME ON FOLKS LETS GET BACK TO REALITY & UNDERSTANDING OF “RESPECT” & WHAT “GOD” STANDS FOR & NOT GO ALL OVER THE BIBLE & MAKE A MOCKERY OF IT – JUST WE DO NOT LIKE WT “GOD” JESUS TELLS US.

 Thus Jesus cannot be Jehovah God, because Psalms 83:18 says this about Jehovah: "That people may know that you, whose name is Jehovah, You alone are the Most High over all the earth." Thus one who is the "MOST HIGH" cannot have one who is GOD TO HIM....for then he COULD NOT be the MOST HIGH now could he??

IN WHOSE OPINION?? NOT HIS - AS HE TELLS US THAT HE & HIS FATHER HAVE THE SAME NAME!!

WE HAVE GONE FROM JOHN 20:28 WHERE THOMAS CALLS JESUS GOD TO ALL OVER THE BIBLE TO DISPROVE WHAT GOD TELLS US WE “SHOULD” BELIEVE.

AFTER ALL GOD DOES KNOW WHO HE IS & HE TELLS US IN HIS WORD “BIBLE” SO DO WE BELIEVE HIM OR WHAT SOMEONE CHISELS OUT OF IT?

Third: Some say, "But did not Thomas say to *HIM* (Jesus), "My Lord and my God?" [YES HE DID!] Thus this means that Thomas LITERALLY directed his words to Jesus! Is this the case?

NO FOLKS HE WAS TALKING TO YOU & ME? JESUS ADDRESSED THOMAS & THOMAS REPLIED TO JESUS ADDRESS.

BUT NO – WE HAVE TO GO TO ANOTHER PART OF THE BIBLE – WHICH HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH WHOM JESUS SPOKE & TO WHO JESUS REPLIED TO, BUT LETS GO THERE. AHHHHHHHHHHHHH

 First: Let's look at one of many instances in the Bible, where words are spoken to one individual, and technically meant for another.

NO READERS - I AM  ARE NOT ADDRESSING THIS TO YOU – IT IS TO THE PERSON WHO IS NOT IN THE ROOM WITH YOU. DO YOU SEE HOW THIS AUTHOR IS GETTING AWAY FROM SUBJECT AT HAND & WHAT ACTUALLY WAS SAID & WHO WAS DOING THE TALKING??

THIS IS NOT HOW WE STUDY GOD'S WORD - THERE IS ONLY TWO WAYS - (1) - WE ACCEPT IT AS IT IS WRITTEN OR (2) WE DENY IT!!

WHICH DO YOU DO??

In various locations in the Bible, the one seemingly spoken to is not always the direct recipient of the statement, or the one, the words are intended for.

I HAVE SAID THIS 100 TIME ALREADY – JESUS ADDRESSED THOMAS & THOMAS RESPONDED TO THAT ADDRESS. HOW MUCH PLANER CAN WE GET?

For example let us take a look at Ex. 3:11. There we read: "However, Moses said to the [true] God:

ARE WE SURE THAT IT WAS [TRUE] GOD THAT MOSES WAS SPEAKING TO? – WE HAVE TO BE SURE FOLKS – OR DO WE GO SOMEWHERE ELSE IN THE BIBLE TO SEE IS THIS IS SO? JUST CURIOUS HERE. REMEMBER THAT NO ONE HAS SEEN NOR HEARD THE FATHER - JOHN 1:18 & 6:46 BUT ONLY HIS SON JESUS CHRIST WHO EXPLAINED HIM TO US.

 "Who am I that I should go to Phar'aoh and that I have to bring the sons of Israel out of Egypt?" Now to whom did Moses literally "speak" his question to? Does it not say, "Moses said to the [true] God?" Yes it does. [ARE WE SURE?- JUTS MAKING SURE!]  So then do we conclude that the one Moses spoke to was LITERALLY Jehovah God? Was it literally Jehovah that Moses spoke to? Verse 2 answers: "Then Jehovah's angel appeared to him in a flame of fire in the midst of a thorn bush. As he kept looking, why, here the thorn bush was burning with the fire and yet the thorn bush was not consumed." So here we PLAINLY and without objection, note, that Moses words were LITERALLY SPOKEN TO the "angel," however they were DIRECTED to Jehovah. So do we conclude that Jehovah WAS an angel that appeared to Moses? NO! Rather we conclude that the angel merely represented Jehovah. The angel was the immediate object of the statement, however the words were directed to the one whom he represented and not the angel himself.

SEE I TOLD YOU IT WASN'T JEHOVAH!!  BUT LETS SEE!!

OK THIS IS NOT HOW WE READ THE BIBLE – WE GO FROM VERSE 1 TO VERSE 11 TO GET THE WHOLE PICTURE.

WE DO NOT GO FROM VERSE 11 TO VERSE 1 TO GET THE STORY. THAT’S LIKE SAYING – LETS START READING THE BIBLE IN REVELATION 22:21 & LETS WORK OUR WAY BACKWARDS VERSE BY VERSE UNTIL WE GET TO GENESIS 1:1. COME ON LET’S GET BACK TO READING THE BOOK FROM BEGINNING TO END.

THIS IS HOW THE PASSAGE READS IN NIV & KJV. I WILL QUOTE NIV AS IT IS THE CLOSEST TO MY HANDS RIGHT NOW.

“ NOW MOSES WAS TENDING THE FLOCK OF JETHRO HIS FATHER - IN - LAW, THEPRIEST OF MIDIAN, AND HE LED THE FLOCK TO THE FAR SIDE OF THE DESERT AND CAME TO HOREB, THE MOUNTAIN OF GOD.

2 THERE THE “ANGEL” OF THE LORD APPEARED TO HIM IN THE FLAMES OF FIRE FROM WITHIN A BUSH. MOSES SAW THAT THOUGH THE BUSH WAS ON FIRE IT DID NOT BURN UP.

3 SO MOSES THOUGHT, I WILL GO OVER AND SEE THIS STRANGE SIGHT- WHY THE BUSH DOES NOT BURN UP.

4 WHEN THE “LORD”  [Jehovah in NWT] SAW THAT HE HAD GONE OVER TO LOOK, “GOD” CALLED OUT TO HIM FROM WITHIN THE BUSH,MOSES, MOSES! AND MOSESSAID, HERE I AM.

5 DO NOT COME ANY CLOSER, “GOD SAID”.TAKE OFF YOURSANDALS, FOR THE PLACE WHERE YOU ARE STANDING IS HOLY GROUND.

6 THEN HE SAID,  “I AM THE GOD” OF YOUR FATHER, THE “GOD” OF ABRAHAM , THE “GOD” OF ISAAC AND THE “GOD” OF JACOB. AT THIS MOSES HID HIS FACE, BECAUSE HE WAS AFRAID TO LOOK “AT GOD”.

7 THE “LORD” SAID, I HAVE INDEED SEEN THE MISERY OF MY PEOPLE IN EGYPT…. Etc.”

I will snip to verse 11-“ BUT MOSES SAID “TO GOD”, WHO AM I THAT I SHOULD GO TO PHARAOH AND BRING THE ISRAELITES OUT OF EGYPT.

12 AND “GOD SAID” I WILL BE WITH YOU… -v-

13 MOSES SAID “ TO GOD”, SUPPOSE I GO TO THE ISRAELITES AND THEY SAY TO THEM, ‘THE GOD’ OF YOUR FATHERS HAS SENT ME TO YOU, AND THEY ASK ME, WHAT IS HIS NAME? THEN WHAT SHALL I TELL THEM?

14 “GOD SAID” TO MOSES. ‘I AM WHO I AM’ THIS IS WHAT YOU ARE TO SAY TO THE ISRAELITES: ‘I AM’ HAS SENT ME TO YOU.”

NOW THAT WE HAVE IT IN THE RIGHT ORDER- TO WHO WAS MOSES SPEAKING TO?

YES AN ANGEL APPEARED AS A FLAME IN VERSE 2 – BUT WHAT HAPPENED AFTER THAT?

WHEN MOSES APPROACHED THE FLAME AS HE WAS CURIOUS – WHO SPOKE TO THE MOSES IN VERSE 4?  FROM THAT TIME ON WAS IT THE SAME PERSON THAT WAS SPEAKING TO MOSES?

NOW THE BIG QUESTION – WHO IS THE SPEAKER IN VERSE 14 THAT IDENTIFIES HIMSELF AS “I AM”?

IN ALL CASES IT WAS JEHOVAH!!

FOLKS DO I HAVE TO GO ANY FURTHER? I HOPE NOT!

I ASKED YOU AT THE BEGINNING TO READ THE “WHOLE: PASSAGE & NOT JUST “ONE” VERSE. NOW I PLEAD WITH YOU
PLEASE READ THE “WHOLE” PASSAGE & IN THE RIGHT ORDER – FROM LOWER NUMBER TO HIGHER & NOT “BACKWARDS”, AS YOU WILL GET IT BACK TO FRONT AS HAS THE WT.

 So, after a close examination of Bible language, we are forced to conclude, that just as we would not rashly conclude that the angel in the Exodus account WAS Jehovah because the scripture technically says "Moses said to the [true] God," we also do not have to necessarily conclude, that Jesus was the intended recipient of Thomas's words "My Lord and my God" because the account says "Thomas said to him (Jesus)."

PLEASE REREAD THE LAST STATEMENT & SEE SOMETHING FUNNY?  I DON’T HAVE TO EXPLAIN IT DO I?

  I HAVE LEFT THIS PASSAGE COMPLETE – TAKE A CLOSE LOOK AT IT & ANSWER YOUR SELF - ARE YOU “FORCED” TO DO ANYTHING THAT IS NOT OF YOUR OWN CHOICE? IF YOU SAY YES TO THIS QUESTION THEN THERE IS A BIG PROBLEM – LET’S TALK PRIVATELY.

  IF MOSES WAS SPEAKING TO AN ANGEL IN VERSE 11 – THEN JEWS HAD NO REASON TO “STONE” JESUS IN JOHN 8:58, BUT THEY DID TRY. THERE IS NO LAW IN JEWISH WRITINGS WHICH DEMANDED THAT A PERSON WAS TO BE STONED FOR REFERRING HIM/HER SELF TO AN “ANGEL” BUT ONLY TO GOD.

Secondly: But even if we say that Thomas' words were specifically directed to Jesus, Greg Stafford in his book: "Jehovah's Witnesses Defended: an Answer To Scholars And Critics" on page 205, has this to say relative to our discussion:

THE AUTHOR SAID IT HIMSELF IN HIS STATEMENT THAT IT WAS DIRECTED AT JESUS. DID YOU PICK IT UP? HMMMM – BUT NOW WE HAVE TO GO ELSEWHERE AGAIN,  THIS TIME IT IS NOT EVEN IN THE BIBLE - BUT SOME OTHER MAN!!

ONE WOULD THINK THAT GOD DOES KNOW WHO HE IS - HEY!!! AND THAT HE KNOWS MORE THAN AMY MAN!!

" Jehovah's Witnesses have no problem addressing Jesus with the words "My Lord and my God."

IF THIS WAS THE TRUTH THEN WE WOULDN’T BE HERE READING & GOING THROUGH THIS DOCUMENT. IF ANY OF THE FOLLOWING "IF"  WAS TO BE THE TRUTH EITHER – WE WOULDN’T BE HERE EITHER, BUT WE INCLUDE THE ORIGINAL IN OUR WRITINGS SO THAT YOU CAN SEE THE WORKINGS OF MERE MEN & NOT GOD HIMSELF, AS HE WILL NOT DENY HIMSELF – ONLY MAN WILL DO THAT.

THE FOLLOWING IS THE EXAMPLE OF THAT. JUST AS THE ABOVE PASSAGES WERE.

 This can be done in a manner patterned after the numerous references to angels as "God" where they stand in His place (Genesis 18:1-5; Judges 13:9, 19-22), even speaking as though they were Jehovah (Exodus 3:2-5; Acts 7:30,38). Additionally, Jesus could so be addressed in view of the position given to him, and the authority with which he has been endowed.

 THIS IS NOT BIBLICAL & GOD FORBIDS IT – AS WE ARE ADDING TO HIS WORD OR TAKING AWAY –AS IT IS IN THIS CASE.

 Such a confession, as in the case of Thomas, [THIS IS NOT CONFUSING AT ALL- UNLESS IT DOES NOT WITH YOUR OWN TEACHING] is qualified not only by the context (John 20:17), but also by the whole of Scripture.

WHEN WE USE THE “WHOLE” SCRIPTURE & THE GUIDANCE OF THE HOLY SPIRIT WE DO NOT GET THIS PICTURE.

 The use of later Chalcedonioan christology does not come into play in verses such as John 20:17, either. Here Jesus, in the same state Thomas addresses him, [WE HAVE A PROBLEM IF JESUS IS NOT IN THE SAME STATE AS THOMAS – THE THOMAS IS HALLUCINATING & IMAGINING] says that the Father is his God, again differentiating between the two in terms of theos, as well as acknowledging the Father's superiority over him, as his God.

NOT SO, THOMAS ADDRESSES THE SON ONLY.

What is certain about John 20:28 is that Thomas' words are in no way an affirmation of anything agreeable to Trinitarianism, for Thomas had no concept of a co-substantial Trinity.

NOTHING TO DO WITH SUBJECT BUT TO HOW THOMAS ADDRESSED JESUS. HE DIDN’T HAVE TO KNOW ANYTHING ABOUT THE TRINITY, ONLY WHO JESUS WAS.

Thomas' words can be understood within the context of the OT presentation of God, where angels are called "gods" and often represent Jehovah as "God."

NOT IN THIS CASE AS THOMAS KNEW AND SPOKE TO JESUS UNLIKE MOSES WHO SAW A FLAME OUT OF WHICH LORD SPOKE TO HIM.
 ........Of course, the Witnesses believe that the NT references to Christ as theos were understood in the relation to
the OT concept of God, which allowed for the recognition of the other, secondary gods, without compromising the Israelite faith of only one true God (compare Isaiah 9:6).

WITNESSES  COULD / WOULD HAVE RENDERED THE WORD ‘HO THEOS’ AS A GOD SIMILAR TO JOHN 1:1, BUT IT WOULD HAVE LOOKED SILLY IF THOMAS CALLED JESUS ‘My Lord and My god’.

SAME WORD AS IN JOHN 1:1 - THE ONLY DIFFERENCE IS THE WORD "AND"  IS IN 1: 1 & IN 20:28 IS "MY"!!!

THERE IS NO DIFFERENCE BETWEEN MY GOD & "AND" GOD??

THERE IS NO DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE TWO STATEMENTS!  YET NWT MAKES DIFFERENCE. HMMMM

THEY COULDN'T EVEN MAKE IT ‘My lord and my god’ AS IN EVERY OTHER INSTANCE IN THE BIBLE THEY WOULD HAVE HAD TO RENDER THE WORD ‘Kurios’ AS ‘lord’.

THE QUESTION ARISES - WHY DIDN'T THEY RENDER THIS PASSAGE AS "MY JEHOVAH [KURIOS] & MY god?"

INTERESTING IDEA - BUT THEN THE ENTIRE NWT WOULD HAVE TO BE RED ONE AGAIN!

Jews such as Thomas could readily appreciate the fact that Jesus belonged to this secondary category of gods, even though Thomas was just beginning to understand the details of Jesus' role in God's purpose.

NOT TRUE!
THOMAS WAS EXTREMELY RELIGIOUS AND HE KNEW THE CONSEQUENCES OF USING THE WORD ‘GOD’ IN VAIN. THAT WOULD HAVE MEANT STONING TO DEATH. ALSO JESUS AT NO TIME REBUKED HIM BUT ACCEPTED THE TITLE.

Interestingly, as discussed earlier, the Jews likely developed an understanding of Jesus' god hood from the founder of Christianity himself,

NOT SO. THEY REBUKED HIM AND DID NOT ACCEPT JESUS’ TEACHINGS, THAT IS WHY THEY KILLED HIM.

IF THEY UNDERSTOOD WHO JESUS WAS - THEN THEY WOULDN'T HAVE HAD HIM CRUCIFIED!

when in the context of one of his debates with them Jesus accepted the title theos in a sense paralleling that of others in Scripture, who are also called "gods."--John 10:33-36."

NOT SO!   -  THIS ENTIRE PASSAGE FROM VERSE 22 TO 39 TELLS US THE JEWS DID NOT BELIEVE IN JESUS. IT WAS ONLY WHEN HE WENT BACK ACROSS THE JORDAN WHERE HE WAS BAPTIZED THAT PEOPLE STARTED TO BELIEVE IN HIM.

AS YOU CAN SEE DEAR READERS -  I KEEP SAYING PLEASE READ THE ENTIRE PASSAGES AND PLEASE DO NOT MAKE THINGS UP. PLEASE DO NOT TAKE ONE VERSE & THEN TRY TO MAKE IT MEAN SOMETHING THAT IT DOES NOT.

I’LL SAY IT AGAIN FOLKS – IF GOD DOESN’T KNOW WHO HE IS THEN WE HAVE A EXTREMELY BIG PROBLEM!!!!

IF HE NEEDS MEN TO TELL HIM THAT THEN WE HAVE EVEN BIGGER PROBLEM & I
MEAN A REALLY BIG PROBLEM.

THE QUALIFIER -"OF ME" - AS THIS AUTHOR USES - TELLS US THAT JESUS IS THOMAMSES GOD.

JESUS IS "GOD OF ME"   -  WHAT DOES THAT TELL YOU?? THAT JESUS IS YOUR GOD OR NOT??

EVEN THE NWT RENDERS THE PHRASE ‘MY LORD AND MY GOD’ REASON FOR THIS THAT THE WORD ‘MOU’ WHEN RENDERED IN ENGLISH MEAN ‘MY’. OTHERWISE WT TRANSLATORS WOULD HAVE MADE IT ‘OF ME’.

 If Thomas had NOT used these qualifying words, trinitarians would have a strong case for there stance.

BY USING THE WORD ‘mou’ THOMAS WAS PERSONALIZING JESUS AS HIS ‘LORD AND GOD.’

JESUS WAS "GOD OF ME [ THOMAS} = THAT IS WHAT HE SAID!!

DIDN'T THOMAS KNOW WHAT HE WAS SAYING EITHER??  JUST CURIOUS AGAIN!

However, Thomas qualified the Godship and Lordship to himself, by saying "of me." Paul did a similar "qualifying" of Satan's Godship at 2 Corinthians 4:4 which reads: "among whom the god (ho theos) of this system of things has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, that the illumination of the glorious good news about the Christ, who is the image of God, might not shine through."

PLEASE NOTE THAT THE QUALIFIER HERE IS "HO" & NOT "MOU" AS ABOVE!

DID PAUL SAY THAT THE DEVIL IS god of me?

THIS IS WHAT THE NIV STATES –

‘THE god OF THIS AGE HAS BLINDED THE MINDS OF UNBELIEVERS, SO THAT THEY CANNOT SEE LIGHT OF THE GOSPEL OF THE GLORY OF CHRIST WHO IS THE IMAGE OF GOD’

Now are we to imagine that Satan is The God of the entire universe? NO, for Paul qualified his Godship as being limited to the "system of things" (alienated from God and destined to be destroyed). Yes Satan is the real correct God [NOT GOD BUT god] of this system of things, not the universe.

Some raise the fact that God is also called the "God of Israel." Thus, they say, does this limit his being God "only to the nation of Israel? The answer is in the context of the verse is YES!

NO GOD IS NOT LIMITED TO BEING GOD OF A NATION ONLY - GOD SAVED NINEVEH WHICH WAS A GENTILE NATION - SEE JONAH!   GOD IS GOD OF EVERYONE.

DEVIL IS YOUR god ONLY IF YOU LET HIM. JESUS DEFEATED HIM SO WHY ARE YOU SINNING IN TO HIM & FOLLOWING MERE MEN??

For at that time it was ONLY the nation of Israel that he was in a covenant relationship with that allowed him to literally be the God and owner of that nation.

THIS WAS ONLY AS JEWS UNDERSTOOD IT AND NOT WHAT GOD MEANT. JEWS WANTED TO BE THE ONLY ONES THAT WERE RIGHTEOUS BUT GOD WANTED OTHERS AS WELL.

THEY STILL CLAIM THIS RIGHT TODAY!!

BUT GOD IS GOD OF EVERYONE & HE WANTS US ALL TO BE WITH HIM & NOT JUST FEW PEOPLE - PLEASE READ THE WHOLE BOOK OF HOSEA ON WHAT GOD SAID TO ISRAEL ESPECIALLY CHAPTER 4-5-9-10 - YOU WILL FIND THEM VERY INTERESTING ON THIS SUBJECT OF SIN & ISRAEL'S SINFULNESS.

 Remember, Thomas' words qualified the Godship and Lordship to himself. Thus we conclude that Thomas use of these qualifying words (of me) are not the same as being stated as God without qualification.

NOT SO – WHEN WE FIRST BECOME CHRISTIANS OUR UNDERSTANDING OF GOD IS NOT THE SAME AS IT IS WHEN WE MATURE IN THE FAITH. THIS IS WHAT HAPPENED TO THOMAS.

 But the Greek text reveals more. Notice the words "Ho Kyrios." (The Lord) The form of the word that is translated Lord, kyrios, is in the nominative case. This case is used primarily to denote the subject of the sentence, but is also used for other purposes. There is another case used for a "direct address" called the vocative.

The vocative case of "kyrios" is "kyrie." Now if anyone knew how to address God, it was Jesus. Let us look at Jesus own address to his Father in Matthew 11:25: "At that time Jesus said in response: "I publicly praise you, Father, Lord ( ho kyrie) of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and intellectual ones and have revealed them to babes."

PLEASE NOTE WHAT JESUS SAID ABOUT THE "INTELLECTUAL" ONES & WHO IS JESUS FOLLOWER - THE BABES.

ARE YOU A BABE OR AN INTELLECTUAL ONE??

Here we see that Jesus addressed his Father as "Lord of Heaven......" The Greek here reads "kyrie" It is the vocative case of the word "kyrios." Thus, this is a formal direct address to his Father as THE LORD.

 WELL SO IT SHOULD BE. SON ALWAYS HAS A CLOSER RELATIONSHIP TO HIS FATHER THAN WHAT ANOTHER PERSON HAS.

JUST LIKE BORN AGAIN CHRISTIANS BECOME THE ‘ADOPTED’ SONS OF GOD AND JESUS IS ‘THE’ SON OF GOD.

YOUR OWN NATURAL SON IS YOU OWN - BUT YOU CAN ADOPT A SON & HE BECOMES YOUR ADOPTED SON & THEN HE SHARES IN "FULL" GLORY OF EVERYTHING THAT YOU HAVE IN YOUR HOUSE HOLD.

However, at John 20:28 we do NOT see the vocative "kyrie," but the nominative "ho kyrios." Thus what Thomas said was directed to Jehovah, the Father with Jesus as the object, or subject of the reason for the exclamation.

NOT SO!!!!!

THOMAS WAS SPEAKING DIRECTLY TO JESUS AFTER JESUS ADDRESSED HIM {THOMAS}.

WHERE IN THIS PASSAGE DOES THOMAS DIRECT HIS STATEMENT TO JESUS FATHER??  NO WHERE.

Thomas in essence was saying to Jehovah: "Thank you for resurrecting Jesus!!"

NOW WE ARE REALLY DIGGING UP STUFF FROM WAY DOWN & I MEAN WAY DOWN. NO, THIS IS A  LIE!

JESUS KNEW THAT THOMAS DOUBTED FROM FORMER SCRIPTURE AND NOW JESUS WAS PERSONALLY SHOWING THE HOLES FROM THE NAILS TO THOMAS. THIS WAS A ONE ON ONE DISCUSSION AND NOT ANOTHER PERSON.

For remember Jesus next words: "Jesus said to him: "Because you have seen me have you believed? Happy are those who do not see and yet believe." [my high lighting only]

NOTE WHAT JESUS SAID - TO THOMAS - "YOU BELIEVE BECAUSE YOU HAVE SEEN ME"   - OK -  NOT HIS FATHER, BUT THOMAS SAW JESUS HIMSELF!!

THIS AUTHOR IS WRITING STRAIGHT FROM THE SCRIPTURE & HE CANNOT SEE WHAT HE IS WRITING -

I ASK AGAIN - ARE YOU A BABE OR AN INTELLECTUAL??

REMEMBER THAT GODS WORD IS GIVEN TO BABES & NOT INTELLECTUALS - SEE  AUTHORS OWN CITATION FEW PARAGRAPHS ABOVE.

Thomas now knew that Jesus was indeed resurrected. He thanked Jehovah, his Father for resurrecting him.

NOT SO. IT WAS A PERSONAL ONE ON ONE DISCUSSION BETWEEN THOMAS AND JESUS.

SEE JOHN 2:19 & ROMANS 8:11 & SEE WHO RAISED JESUS!!

So too, we thank Jehovah, our Lord and God for resurrecting Jesus to heaven to be the ruler of God's Kingdom.

WE THANK THE FATHER FOR GIVING US HIS SON AS OUR ATONEMENT OF SINS IN JESUS’ NAME. BLESSED BE HIS NAME.
JOHN 3:16

  JESUS TELLS US IN LUKE 22:19

DO YOU DO THAT??

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