" So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such   as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth."

This verse is used by some "after" they say that Jesus was God. (John 1:1) This verse is then used to attempt to say that Jesus was God in the flesh. Based on our above discussion of John 1:1 this can hardly be proven. They also like to say that the term "only begotten" means "without beginning," that Jesus was "Eternally the Son." Is this the case? Let's look at a few points from this verse.

 WE HAVE SHOWN THAT JOHN 1:1 SHOULD BE RENDERED AS  ‘GOD’ AND NOT AS ‘a god’. SO THIS VERSE 1:14 ALSO SHOWS US THAT THE ‘GOD’ WAS MADE FLESH AND RESIDED AMONG US.

John here tells us that the Word (Jesus) "became" flesh. The Greek word translated here is "ginomai." It means to be "made, produced, come into being." Thus all that Jesus was in heaven (a mighty spirit being or god- NOT  god but GOD)  was now made flesh. The use of the word 'ginomai' here limits our understanding to Jesus being "made" flesh. Not that he "took on" flesh, like we might "take on" a coat when it is cold. Jesus literally 'was' made into the coat as it were.

FIRST OF ALL THERE IS "NO" OTHER god IN HEAVEN - AS GOD DOES NOT RECOGNIZE ANY!  [ISAIAH 45:5} SO WHAT DOES THIS AUTHOR KNOWS THAT GOD DOES NOT??

JESUS CLOTHED HIMSELF WITH THE “HUMAN” FLESH NOT JUST THE COAT – BUT THE FLESH AS WELL AS THE COAT. GOD WHO IS SPIRIT “ACTUALLY” BECAME LIKE ONE OF US BY TAKING ON NEW FORM IN HUMAN FLESH. MALACHI 3:1 - PHILIPPIANS 2:6 - TITUS 2:13 etc.

So very plainly from this text, Jesus was fully flesh by "nature." that is, his nature [note the words “nature”] or very being  was flesh. Jesus was a man.  [SO TRUE] Numbers 23:19 however tells us something rather interesting:

AFTER INCARNATION JESUS HAD TAKEN ON HIS DUAL ROLE & FORM, BY NATURE HE WAS A “SPIRIT” – BUT NOW BY “HUMAN NATURE” HE WAS MAN. YET HE DID NOT LOSE HIS DIVINITY {Colossians 2:8-9 & 1:15-16}.

"God is not a man that he should tell lies, Neither a son of mankind that he should feel regret.    Has he himself said it and will he not do it, And has he spoken and will he not carry it out?"

Is God a man? No. Was Jesus a man? Yes. Is God a Son of Man? No. Was Jesus the Son of Man? Yes. The text is plain. Jesus is Not God. But more on this aspect later under the Numbers heading.

THIS PASSAGE HAS NO RELEVANCE TO “GOD” BECOMING FLESH. THIS “ENTIRE PASSAGE “ TELLS US ABOUT BALAAMS SECOND MESSAGE THAT HE RECEIVES FROM GOD.

GOD IS TELLING  “BALAAM (-v- 16 ) TO GO TO BALAK & GIVE HIM A MESSAGE FROM GOD - & THE MESSAGE WAS THAT  “GOD IS NOT LIKE A MAN & THAT MAN LIES” BUT THAT GOD IS IMMUTABLE (ALL TRUTH) & HE DOES NOT STOOP TO SUCH LOW LEVELS LIKE MAN & TELLS LIES TO SUIT HIS OWN WAYS.

 SO TRUE – HEY- GOD IS “NOT” LIKE MAN WHO CONTINUALLY LIES TO OTHERS SO TO MAKE THINGS FIT THEIR OWN WAY. GOD TELLS THE TRUTH & HE KEEPS HIS WORD. HE WILL DENY “ALL” OF THOSE WHO DENY HIM, SO LETS NOT DO THAT.

THIS AUTHOR HAS REALLY TAKEN THIS VERSE SO FAR OUT OF CONTEXT THAT IT ISN’T FUNNY. PLEASE READ ISAIAH 55:7-13 & YOU WILL SEE HOW THIS PASSAGE (Numbers 23:19) comes to light WHEN YOU READ ISAIAH PASSAGE & NOT JOHN 14.  They have nothing in common.

 John 1:14 also tells us that Jesus is "an only-begotten son from a father"

{NOT SO – JESUS IS FROM “THE” FATHER & NOT FROM “A” FATHER – IS MY WIFE “A” MOTHER OF OUR CHILDREN OR IS SHE “THE” MOTHER OF OUR CHILDREN? INTERESTING QUESTION ISN’T IT? ANY WOMAN CAN BE A MOTHER TO OUR CHILDREN & CARE FOR THEM – BUT ONLY MY WIFE IS “THE” MOTHER OF OUR CHILDREN AS SHE IS THE ONE THAT GAVE THEM BIRTH! }

What does this mean. Well, as we previously mentioned in our discussion of Matthew 3:16,17, the word 'son' means offspring, and the word father means life-giver.

THIS IS HOW WE HUMANS UNDERSTAND IT  & how we procreate the human kind – BUT JESUS NEVER HAD A SPIRITUAL MOTHER & THE WORD DOES NOT HAVE THE SAME CONNOTATION IN THE SPIRITUAL SENSE AS IT DOES IN HUMAN TERMS.

JESUS WAS THERE FORM THE BEGINNING - THAT MEANS = BEFORE HE CREATED ANYTHING HE WAS THERE. HE WAS NEVER CREATED! THERE IS NOT ONE PASSAGE IN THE BIBLE THAT STATES THAT JESUS WAS CREATED.

WT & MANY CULTS USE PROVERBS 8 & 9 TO TELL US THAT THESE TWO PASSAGE REFER TO JESUS.

NOW - UNLESS JESUS WAS A SHE OR A HER - THEN THESE PASSAGES DO NOT REFER TO HIM PLEASE READ VERSES 1-3 IN PROVERBS  8 & THEN READ PROVERBS 9 & YOU WILL FIND THE SAME WORDS  WHICH REFER TO 'WISDOM" WHICH IS A FEMALE VIRTUE.

With this in mind, here we are told what the relationship between Jehovah and Jesus is. It is a Father-Son Relationship. Did Jesus become the "son" of the father when he was born through Mary on earth? Some Trinitarians answer YES!

[WELL – JESUS WAS CONCEIVED BY MARY & THE HOLY SPIRIT IS THE ONE WHO IMPREGNATED HER]- SO WHAT DOES THAT MAKE HOLY SPIRIT? JESUS' FATHER AS IT WAS THE HOLY SPIRIT WHO MADE MERRY PREGNANT].

But the Bible answers differently. Let's prove that: First we go to Proverbs 30:4 that reads: "Who has ascended to heaven that he may descend? Who has gathered the wind in the hollow of both hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in a mantle? Who has made all the ends of the earth to rise? What is his name and what the name of his son, in case you know?"

Here we see that Jehovah was the one "who made the earth to rise," and that he had a son who had a name. In heaven!!!

ACCORDING TO WORD OF GOD (JOHN 1: 3 IT WAS JESUS WHO CREATED THE UNIVERSE & EVERYTHING IN IT - & - IT WAS HE (JESUS) WHO ASCENDED & DESCENDED (JOHN 3:13; COLOSSIANS 1:16).

“NO ONE HAS EVER GONE INTO HEAVEN EXCEPT THE ONE WHO CAME FROM HEAVEN -–THE SON OF MAN (JESUS).”

-V- 14 “Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up, 15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.”

DO YOU BELIEVE IN JESUS' NAME?  OR DO YOU BELIEVE THAT YOU "MUST" BELONG TO AN RELIGIOUS ORGANIZATION TO BE SAVED??

BIBLE TELLS US THAT IT IS ONLY JESUS' NAME THAT WILL SAVE US & NOT NAY ORGANIZATION!!

Hebrews 1:3 reads: "has at the end of these days spoken to us by means of a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the systems of things."

So here we see that Jesus was the Son in Heaven through whom, God Jehovah made the system of things. Do you see this point? This is very plain and destructive to Trinitarian theology.

ACTUALLY FOLKS – IT IS THE VERSE 2 – THAT GOD MADE EVERY THING “THROUGH” HIS SON – THIS DOESN’T MEAN THAT FATHER WAS THE CREATOR – BUT THAT THE FATHER “GAVE” ALL THE AUTHORITY TO SON TO CREATE EVERYTHING.

IF FATHER WAS THE CREATOR THEN HE WOULDN’T BE USING SOMEONE ELSE – THE VERSE WOULD READ SOMETHING LIKE THIS – IF WE ARE TO USE AUTHORS ALLUSIONS “ I MADE EVERYTHING FOR HIM & NOT THROUGH HIM.”

IF I MAKE SOMETHING THROUGH MY CHILD – THEN IT IS NOT ME WHO IS DOING THE WORK – I MERELY GAVE THE SON AUTHORITY TO DO IT IN MY NAME & THAT WAY I ALSO GET ACCREDITED THE WORKMANSHIP.

DO THE DIRECTORS OF FORD MOTOR Co. ACTUALLY “MAKE”  THE CARS OR DO THEY GET MADE THROUGH A FACTORY STAFF?  IT IS “THROUGH” THE STAFF THAT THE CARS ARE MADE – BUT DIRECTORS GET THE CREDIT & BLAME IF SOMETHING GOES WRONG. AGAIN THE AUTHOR CONFUSES THE ISSUES & TRIES TO MAKE SOMETHING THAT ISN’T THERE.

WHEN WE TAKE THIS IN IT'S CONTEXT - THE CARS ARE MADE "BY" THE STAFF - BUT AS FAR AS THE DIRECTORS ARE CONCERNED - THEY ARE MADE "THROUGH" & BY THE HANGS OF STAFF & NOT THE DIRECTORS THEM S ELVES!!

SAME APPLIES TO JESUS - IT WAS "BY" JESUS' HANDS THAT EVERYTHING WAS MADE = BUT THE FATHER GAVE HIM THE AUTHORITY TO DO IT.

THIS DOES NOT MAKE THE SON ANY LOVER HUMAN BEING - IN STANDING THEN YOU - JUST BECAUSE HE SHE/ MADE SOMETHING THAT YOU GAVE HIM / HER THE AUTHORITY TO MAKE.

These verses help us to see that Jesus was the Son of the Father in heaven. {TRUE} But does this indicate that Jesus was eternally the Son? {IF HE WASN’T THEN WE HAVE A PROBLEM} Well even a self proclaimed theologian like Walter Martin, former president of the Christian  Research Institute, who was a very staunch trinitarian, proclaimed that Jesus was NOT "Eternally the Son" in his book the Kingdom of the Cults, page 103, 1965 edition under the heading Jehovah's Witnesses

I HAVE THE LATER EDITION OF THE SAME TITLE – THERE IS NO SUCH TITLE ON THAT PAGE – BUT WHAT WALTER MARTIN DOES DO – IS CITE WT PASSAGE FIRST & THEN HE USES BIBLE TO SHOW THE READER HOW WT LIES & DECEIVES THEIR READERS. HE CLEARLY STATES THAT THE FATHER - SON & HOLY SPIRIT ARE CO-EQUAL, CO-ETERNAL & CO-EXISTANT BY THE NATURE OF THE GODHEAD.

Why? Because the very word "Son" denotes a beginning, as it's core definition denotes "offspring." NOT IN BIBLE TERMINOLOGY. Thus, in order to be a Son, one must be "begotten" NO, or "produced," YES or "sired." I mention this, because a lot of trinitarians have read this book (Kingdom of the Cults by Walter Martin) and base a lot of their beliefs on the reasons that are contained therein.

AGAIN NOT TRUE – WE BASE OUR BELIEFS ON THE WORD OF GOD & NOT WHAT WALTER MARTIN STATES IN HIS BOOK – WE USE THE BOOK AS SOURCE OF REFERENCE.

BIG DIFFERENCE THERE. AS USUAL – THE AUTHOR ALLUDES TO THINGS THAT AREN’T TRUE.

Interestingly enough, the very same Institute he founded, namely the Christian Research Institute, under the current leadership of Hank Hanegraaff, does NOT hold Martin's views on this subject. They REJECT entirely Walter Martin's teaching that Jesus was NOT Eternally the Son. Thus they differ on the very "essential" doctrine of trinity, they say Christian should NOT to divide on.......and do so with their very own founder!

I’LL SAY IT AGAIN – CHRISTIANS BASE THEIR BELIEFS ON THE WORD OF GOD & NOT WHAT ANY OTHER AUTHOR SAYS. IF IT IS NOT BIBLE BASED THEN IT IS NOT CORRECT & WE DO NOT BELIEVE IT.

But what matters is what the Bible says, not what some theologian, or Institute believes or teaches.

THEN ALL JW’s SHOULD READ THE BIBLE & NOT WT & AWAKE MAGAZINES ON WHICH THEY BASE THEIR ENTIRE TEACHINGS AS THE WHOLE TRUTH. IF ONE IS TO READ BIBLE ALONE THEN THEY WILL GO ASTRAY ACCORDING TO WT MAGAZINES.

Notice what else John tells us about this unique relationship that Jesus has with his Father.

John tells us that Jesus is "an only-begotten son." The Greek word from which only begotten is translated is "monogenes." Its two parts are broken up like this: 'monos' means "only", where as "ginomai" (genes) means "born, generated, produced ALSO “ONLY” CHILD." Thus the word means "of sole descent, without brothers or sisters, only born." Does this mean that Jesus was literally the "only son born" in heaven? No! For the angels are also called Sons of God, and they were of course born, or created, in heaven. (Job 38:7) So then, Jesus must be unique in his relationship to the Father. The term "monogenes" (only begotten) helps us to see this truth. So then, how are we helped to understand just what this relationship involves?

THIS WORD WAS DERIVED BY JEROME WHO TRANSLATED THE LATIN VULGATE BETWEEN 320 & 420 AD.  AS THERE WERE SO MANY HERETICS LIKE ARIUS – SO THE WORD WAS DENOTED TO MEAN ONLY BEGOTTEN & NOT MADE/ CREATED.
 

JESUS DID HAVE A VERY SPECIAL RELATIONSHIP WITH HIS FATHER & THAT WAS “UNITY” WHAT EVER FATHER DID SO DID THE SON. SON AT NO TIME WAS CREATED– JESUS WAS THE ONLY SON  ‘BEGOTTEN’ & NOT CREATED (AS WE HUMANS CAN COMPREHEND IT) THAT FATHER HAD.

THIS WAS BY PRE-EMINENCE – CHOOSING – AS THE ONLY KING ETC. IT’S LIKE SAYING GIVING OF GOD’S OWN SELF FOR SALVATION OF MAN.

Well let us consider another use of the term "monogenes" in the Bible. Look at Hebrew 11:17 that reads: "By faith Abraham, when he was tested, as good as offered up Isaac, and the man that had gladly received the promises attempted to offer up [his] only-begotten [son]." Here we see that Isaac is referred to as "Abraham's only begotten son." But didn't Isaac have an older brother named Ishmael? Yes he did! So then how can we call Isaac, Abraham's only born son?" Well, we can do so, because the Bible does so, and thus we need to dig deeper. When we do, we see that Isaac was indeed Abraham's ONLY BORN SON, of the marriage between he and his wife Sarah, due to the promise and miracle of Jehovah God in their behalf! Thus Isaac IS Abraham's ONLY BORN Son with reference to a promise. (Galatians 4:22-26)

THIS IS NOT ALL TRUE – BUT AGAIN TAKEN OUT OF CONTEXT – JUST AS A DIVORCED FATHER CAN HAVE TWO OR MORE OFFSPRING'S WITH EACH WIFE. SO HE CAN HAVE A FIRST BORN CHILD WITH EACH WIFE, BUT HIS “FIRST BORN CHILD” ( AS THIS AUTHOR ALLUDES TO) IS ALWAYS THE FIRST BORN TO HIS FIRST WIFE. YET BOTH WIVES HAVE THEIR OWN CHILD WITH THE SAME MAN AS THEIR OWN FIRST BORN.

 IN THIS CASE THE WORD DENOTES THE “CHOOSING” THAT IS PRE-EMINENCE OR STATUS BY GOD & NOT OF ABRAHAM'S  CHOOSING NOR EVEN HIS FIRST SON. JUST AS THE PSALMIST ‘DAVID’ HE WAS EIGHTH BY BIRTH TO HIS HUMAN
FATHER ( 1 Samuel 16:11), BUT GOD CHOSE HIM TO BE HIS “GOD’S”  FIRST BORN (psalm 9:27). THE WORDS IN BOTH CASE REFER TO GOD’S “CHOICE” OR PRE-EMINENCE OVER ALL THE OTHERS & NOTHING TO DO WITH “ACTUAL” BIRTH ORDER OF A CHILD.

But remember, Isaac had a half brother. Thus, the correspondence to Jesus is a perfect one. Jesus too had one's who were like him, in that they too, owed their life to Jehovah their Father.

NOT TRUE – JESUS HAD NO SPIRIT BROTHERS –  OTHERWISE THERE WOULD BE MORE PEOPLE WITHIN THE GODHEAD.

ACTUALLY MORMONS BELIEVE THIS - WE “BELIEVERS” WHO ARE BORN OF THE SPIRIT ARE CONSIDERED AS “ADOPTED” SONS OF GOD –

WE  WILL SHARE IN ALL HIS GLORY – BUT WE ARE NOT GODS – JUST ADOPTED SONS OF GOD. I CAN CALL ANY CHILD MY SON – BUT THAT DOES NOT MAKE HIM MY ACTUAL SON BY BIRTH. IT WAS MY CHOICE TO MAKE ANOTHER BOY “CO-EQUAL” {IN MY CHOOSING} TO MY OWN SON BY BIRTH. IT IS MY PREROGATIVE TO DO SO & SO DOES OUR HEAVENLY FATHER CHOOSE WHO IS TO BE FIRST IN RANK.
 

But what made Jesus the "only begotten," or "only born," [NOT SO THERE IS A BIG DIFFERENCE BETWEEN TWO STATEMENTS – SEE LAST COMMENT] in a way that was unique with reference to the angels? NOT SO! - Well Proverbs 8:22 says of Jesus: "Jehovah himself produced me as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievements of long ago." Yes, Jesus is here being spoken of (proof of this in the "Trinity Proofs Section" under Proverbs) as being "produced" as the "earliest of Jehovah's achievements!" Yes, Jesus was the only "direct creation of Jehovah." His literal FIRSTBORN, ONLY BEGOTTEN SON. All other 'sons' i.e.: angels, man etc, were creations, or "sons" made "through" Jesus (John 1:3) That is why John spoke of the "glory such as belongs to...an only begotten son FROM A FATHER."

NOT SO – PROVERBS 8 & 9 TALK & DISCUSS THE “WISDOM” & NOT JESUS – WE HAVE ALREADY COVERED THIS – BUT HERE WE GO AGAIN –

VERSE 1 “DOES NOT “WISDOM” CALL OUT? DOES NOT “UNDERSTANDING” RAISE “HER” VOICE? ON THE HEIGHTS ALONG THE WAY, WHERE THE PATHS MEET, "SHE"TAKES “HER” STAND;(JESUS WAS NEVER A SHE OR A HER) BESIDE THE GATES LEADING INTO THE CITY AT THE ENTRANCES, “SHE” CRIES ALOUD:.” …(TO SAVE TYPING THE ENTIRE PROVERB PLEASE GO & READ IT ALL I WILL ONLY WRITE THE RELEVANT PASSAGES) –V- 11  “WISDOM IS MORE PRECIOUS THAN RUBIES & NOTHING YOU DESIRE CAN COMPARE WITH “HER”. –V- 12 I “WISDOM”, DWELL TOGETHER WITH “PRUDENCE”; I POSSESS KNOWLEDGE AND DISCRETION… -V-20 “I WALK IN THE WAY OF RIGHTEOUSNESS, ALONG THE PATHS OF JUSTICE, -V-23 BESTOWING WEALTH ON THE THOSE WHO LOVE ME AND MAKING THEIR TREASURES FULL. –V- 22 The lord brought me forth as the first of his works, before his deeds of old – v- 23 I was appointed from “eternity” from beginning, before the world began…. etc”

 PLEASE NOTE THAT FROM VERSE 1 TO THE LAST VERSE THE SPEAKER DOES NOT CHANGE– IT IS “ALWAYS” THE “WISDOM” THAT IS TALKING & ASKING “EVERYONE” TO HAVE IT.

WISDOM IS CALLED “SHE” & “HER” – JESUS WAS A MALE THEREFORE FEMININETHIRD PERSON PRONOUNS WOULD NOT APPLY TO HIM. IF THIS WAS SPEAKING OFJESUS – THEN MASCULINE PRONOUNS LIKE “HE” & “HIM” WOULD BE USED INSTEAD.

Yes, Jesus is indeed, the Only directly created Son of the Father, His God, Jehovah! Micah 5:4 More on this verse later.

"In answer Jesus said to them: "Break down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up. "21  But he was talking about the temple of his body."

These two verses are used by some to say that Jesus literally raised his own body from the dead, even though he was dead. Thus proving that he was God. This already is very hard to imagine, {NOT AT ALL = NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD}  (Gen. 18:14; Romans 4:21) [ALSO IF THIS WAS NOT SO & JESUS SAID IT THEN HE WOULD BE A LIAR – WHICH HE IS NOT] just with the accusation, but let's look at this idea from a Biblical perspective to see if such reasoning makes good sound Biblical sense.

JESUS TELLS US THAT HE CAN DO IT & NOW AUTHOR WILL TELL HIM THAT HE CAN NOT & IT IS IMPOSSIBLE FOR HIM TO DO IT. WOW!!

We need to keep in mind, that Jesus here used the figurative term, "temple," with reference to his body. Thus his raising "it" up must also be figurative. Jesus did speak of raising his body. [S0 TRUE] But this does not mean that he literally, "by himself," would raise up his body. How can we come to this conclusion? By being good Bible students and letting the Bible interpret itself!

WELL DEAR READERS – AS WE ARE A GOOD BIBLE STUDENTS LETS ALLOW THE BIBLE TO TELL US –

IN 1 CORINTHIANS 3:16-17 PAUL (who was inspired by God) TELLS US:

 “DON’T YOU KNOW THAT YOU YOURSELVES ARE GOD’S TEMPLE & THAT GOD’S SPIRIT LIVES IN YOU –v- 17 IF ANYONE DESTROYS GOD’S TEMPLE (which is you)  GOD WILL DESTROY HIM; FOR GOD’S TEMPLE (you) ARE SACRED, AND YOU ARE THAT TEMPLE”.

 NOW – JUST FOR A MINUTE LET’S THINK – YOU & I ARE “GOD’S TEMPLE” THEN HOW IS IT NOT POSSIBLE FOR GOD’S SON TO BE A TEMPLE OF GOD???? HMMMM – NOT POSSIBLE!!

WOULDN’T YOU SAY. THEREFORE JESUS WAS SAYING THE TRUTH WHEN HE WAS REFERRING TO HIS BODY AS TEMPLE.

 OR ARE YOU SAYING THAT PAUL ALSO DIDN'T KNOW WHAT HE WAS SAYING?? REMEMBER HE WAS INSPIRED BY THE HOLY SPIRIT - WHO IS GOD - SEE WHAT HAPPENS WHEN YOU LIE TO HOLY SPIRIT IN ACTS 5:3-4 - IT IS A SERIOUS HEALTH HAZARD!!

 The Bible gives us the confidence, (WE ARE SO LUCKY THAT IT DOES} that if one relies on the promises of God, and is faithful in his course, he can depend on the reward. The Bible goes so far as to indicate, that the "one carrying out his faithful course to its conclusion in service to God, and receiving the reward," did so, as if the person achieved the goal by himself. That is, without the aid of Jehovah.

 WHEN WE LIVE IN GOD’S GRACE & BY FAITH WE OBEY HIS COMMANDS THEN THIS IS TRUE. BUT AGAIN THIS STATEMENT HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH THE SUBJECT AT HAND.

How can we say that? Because of reading numerous examples of this type of speech in the Bible.

1 Timothy 4:16 says: "Pay constant attention to yourself and to your teaching. Stay by these things, for by doing this you will save both yourself and those who listen to you."

Can we literally "save ourselves?" Or is Jehovah the one who saves us through his Son? Paul said "we could."

Luke 8:48: "But he said to her: "Daughter, your faith has made you well; go your way in peace."

Did the "girls'" Faith make her well? Or was it God's power? Jesus said it was the girls' faith.

Luke 7:50: "But he said to the woman: "Your faith has saved you; go your way in peace."

Again, did the woman's' literal faith save her, or did God? Jesus said it was "her" faith.

Notice Luke 9:24: "For whoever wants to save his soul will lose it; but whoever loses his soul for my sake is the one that will save it."

SO FAR WE HAVEN'T HAD ONE THING SAID ABOUT THE SUBJECT AT HAND. HMMMM!!!

This verse is very interesting because it says that "before" the person who wants to "save" his soul, can do so, he must first "lose his soul" or must literally die first! So then, are we to imagine that a person can save his own soul, and give himself life again, or
raise his body up, by himself, even though he is dead? Of course not. Yet the fact remains, that Jesus said that one could save
his own soul. So then how do we understand these words as well as those found at John 2:19,21?

STILL NOTHING TO DO WITH THE SUBJECT – BUT WE HAVE GOD’S FREE GIFT & IF WE ACCEPT THAT GIFT WE WILL SAVE OUR SOULS.

SALVATION IS A TWO WAY STREAK – GOD GIVES & WE “MUST” ACCEPT HIS GIFT AS A GIFT CAN NOT BE EARNT – BUT ACCEPTED.

All these examples, as well as others not mentioned here, show that one can be credited for something as having done it by himself.
YES IT IS CALLED “ACCEPTING” GOD’S FREE GIFT.
Things as great as salvation or being healed, or coming back to life, but in actuality it was God who performed the miracle
because of their faithfulness. This is the case of Jesus. Jesus did NOT have faith in himself, he had faith in God.

NOT AT ALL – HE HAD KNOWLEDGE IN WHAT HE COULD DO & HE DID IT.

This we see at Hebrews 5:7: "In the days of his flesh [Christ] offered up supplications and also petitions to the One who was able to save him out of death, with strong outcries and tears, and he was favourably heard for his godly fear."

THE ACTUAL VERSE GOES AS THIS: “DURING THE DAYS OF JESUS LIFE ON EARTH HE OFFERED UP PRAYERS AND PETITIONS WITH LOUD CRIES AND TEARS TO THE ONE WHO COULD SAVE HIM FROM DEATH, AND HE WAS HEARD BECAUSE OF HIS REVERENT SUBMISSION.”

PLEASE NOTE THAT THIS VERSE REFERS TO JESUS’ CRIES IN THE GARDEN OF GETHSEMANE WHEN HE ASKED THE FATHER TO TAKE THIS CUP AWAY FROM HIM. – BUT HE STILL SAID IN THAT PRAYER THAT IT WILL BE THE WILL OF THE FATHER
THAT WILL BE DONE & NOT HIS PRAYER OF NOT HAVING TO HAVE TO GO THROUGH SUFFERING ON THE CROSS.
(MATTHEW 26:36 - 46).

JESUS KNEW IN ADVANCE WHAT HE WAS ABOUT TO GO THROUGH IN HIS HUMAN FLESH & EVEN HE DIDN’T WANT TO DO IT – BUT HE STILL WANTED TO FULFIL FATHER'S WILL. EVEN THOUGH HE WAS GOD HE STILL HAD TO “FULFIL” THE WRITINGS OF THE LAW AND THE PROPHETS WHICH INCLUDED SUFFERING OF HUMAN FLESH.

 BUT AGAIN THIS PASSAGE HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH JESUS “RAISING” HIS TEMPLE  FROM DEATH.

So did Jesus have faith in himself? NO! Jesus had faith in God, the "One" who was able to save Jesus from death. If Jesus hadn't died, then God would not need to rescue him. This verse does NOT say that Jesus rescued himself from death. Rather Jesus was rescued from death by his God and Father, "the One who was able to rescue him out of death." As Galatians 1:1 says: "Paul, an apostle, neither from men nor through a man, but through Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised him up from the dead"

DOES THE HEBREW PASSAGE TELL US WHAT THIS AUTHOR ALLUDES TO – OR DOES IT TELL US SOMETHING ELSE? PLEASE SEE LAST NOTE.

JESUS DIDN’T WANT TO GO THROUGH “PHYSICAL” PAIN OF BEING NAILED TO THE CROSS & NOT WHAT THE AUTHOR ALLUDES TO IN HIS REASONING.

RE GALATIANS PASSAGE – YES – SO TRUE – BUT AGAIN AS I  MENTIONED EARLIER – FATHER – SON -  & THE HOLY SPIRIT WORK IN UNISON & THEY ALL RESURRECTED JESUS BODY AS ONE. WHAT FATHER DOES SO DOES THE SON & SO
DOES THE HOLY SPIRIT.
 

IN JOHN 10:17 JESUS TELLS US THAT “HE LIES HIS LIFE DOWN ONLY SO TO TAKE IT UP AGAIN” SEE VERSE 18 ALSO.

IN ROMANS 8:11 WE READ THAT “SPIRIT OF GOD” THAT IS “HOLY SPIRIT” RAISED JESUS & IF THAT SPIRIT LIVES IN YOU THEN WE ALSO WILL BE RAISED FROM THE DEAD BY “HOLY SPIRIT” - THAT MEANS THAT WE  “MUST BE” BORN AGAIN = OR BORN OF SPIRIT.

AS WELL AS FATHER & SON RAISING JESUS’ BODY FROM GRAVE – SO DID THE SPIRIT OF GOD “HOLY SPIRIT” RAISE JESUS. WE SEE THAT THERE ARE 3 PERSONS THAT RAISE JESUS. YOU SEE DEAR READERS ALL 3 WORK AS ONE FOR THE SAME
PURPOSE.

 Yes it was Jesus' Father that raised Jesus up. Jesus was "put to death in the flesh, but "made" alive in the spirit". 1 Peter 3:18.

The Greek word translated "made alive" is "zoopoieo." It is from "zoe" life and "poieo" to make. Thus it means "to cause to live; give life." It is used of Jesus raising the dead in John 5:21: "For just as the Father raises the dead up and makes them alive, so the Son also makes those alive whom he wants to."

In this verse, "zoopoieo" is used of the Father raising the dead (as in his resurrection of Jesus) and of Jesus making "alive those whom he wants to." Now, are we to understand that those that Jesus raises from the dead (zoopoieo) are not really dead themselves and they literally raise their own body? Hardly. And neither did Jesus physically raise his own body.

FOLKS – AS USUAL THIS AUTHOR IS COMPARING MERE  MAN & GOD – THERE IS NO
WAY THAT WE SHOULD EVEN CONSIDER SUCH THINGS – BUT LET’S COMPARE THEM.

THERE IS NO WAY THAT A MAN CAN BE COMPARED TO WHAT GOD CAN DO. JUST BECAUSE MAN CAN NOT RAISE HIMSELF FROM THE DEAD – IT DOES NOT STAND TO REASON THAT GOD CAN NOT DO IT.

THE BIBLE TELLS US THAT SON DOES DO IT, BUT THE AUTHOR CONTINUES TO DENY THE SON HIS GLORY, JUST BECAUSE IT DOES NOT AGREE WITH WT & HIS TEACHING.

 "On this account, indeed, the Jews began seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was   he breaking the Sabbath but he was also calling God his own Father, making himself equal to God."

Some say that this is proof that Jesus was equal to God, and thus, Jesus was God. Is this the case? Let's see.

JEWS KNEW THAT HE WAS MAKING HIMSELF EQUAL TO GOD – THAT’S WHY THEY WANTED TO STONE HIM. THERE WERE ONLY 5 REASONS WHY THEY COULD STONE PEOPLE TO DEATH & ONE OF THIS WAS BLASPHEMY. THIS IS THE CASE IN THIS PASSAGE, IN THEIR INTERPRETATION.

 First off, these are John's writings of what the Jews imagined. (not what Jesus said)

THE ABOVE PASSAGE SAYS NOTHING ABOUT JEWS “IMAGINING ANYTHING” THE JEWS SAW  WITH THEIR OWN EYES WHAT JESUS DID & IN VERSES 16 & 17 IT TELLS US THIS.

YES JOHN IS THE “AUTHOR” HE WAS THERE WITH JESUS SO HE IS PAINTING A PICTURE FOR US SO THAT WE CAN GET THE FULL UNDERSTANDING OF WHAT ACTUALLY HAPPENED.

How do we know this?  Well, did Jesus actually break the sabbath? NO.

YES HE DID – HE HEALED A MAN ON SABBATH – THAT IS HE DID PHYSICAL WORK WHICH JEWS WEREN’T ALLOWED TO DO.

Jesus fulfilled the law, he didn't break it.

YES HE DID FULFIL “EVERYTHING” THAT WAS WRITTEN ABOUT HIM & THAT INCLUDED BREAKING THE PHARISEES STRICT RULES & REGULATIONS THAT THEY IMPOSED ON JEWISH PEOPLE'

if Jesus broke the sabbath, he would be imperfect! [NOT TRUE!!] (and the apostle John obviously knew this, for this was written many  years after it happened)

BIG DEAL – JOHN WAS UNDER THE INSPIRATION OF GOD (HOLY SPIRIT) & GOD KNOWS EVERYTHING THAT HAPPENED YESTERDAY – TODAY & WHAT WILL HAPPEN TOMORROW.

NOW THE AUTHOR IS CALLING GOD A LIAR ALSO.

ALSO = JESUS CAME TO GIVE US "NEW COVENANT" & THAT INCLUDED GETTING RID OF THE RESTRICTIONS OF THE LAW - LIKE INNOCENT SACRIFICES - WASHING HANDS BEFORE DINNER - WORKING ON SABBATH ETC.   SEE LUKE 16:17

So the Jews were wrong about saying that Jesus broke the Law. They were also wrong about what Jesus meant when he called God his Father. They imagined that Jesus meant

THAT HE WAS EQUAL to God. ONLY ONE THAT IS IMAGINING IS THIS AUTHOR. SORRY FOLKS – BUT IF THIS WAS SO THEN THE ENTIRE BIBLE IS A LIE – JEWS KNEW VERY WELL WHAT WAS WRONG ACCORDING TO THEIR OWN INTERPRETATION OF THE LAW.

But that is NOT what Jesus said or implied. Notice his response to their concepts in verse 19: "Therefore, in answer, Jesus went on to say to them: "Most truly I say to YOU, The Son cannot do a single thing of his own initiative, but only what he beholds the Father doing. For whatever things that One does, these things the Son also does in like manner."

If Jesus WAS equal to God, and the Jews were correct in their understanding of his words, his reply could not have been as it was above. If Jesus was equal to God, then he would NOT have to wait to behold what his Father did, and then mimic him. He would do "everything" of his own initiative.

NO – NO – NO – THE SON CHERISHES HIS FATHER SO MUCH THAT HE DOES NOT WANT TO DO ANYTHING THAT HIS FATHER WOULD DISPROVE OF. THAT’S WHY THE FATHER WOULDN’T DO ANYTHING THAT HIS SON WOULDN’T LIKE SO THEY DO EVERYTHING THE SAME. NOT MIMICKING EACH OTHER – BUT BEING TRUTHFUL TO EACH OTHER. IF JESUS DID ANYTHING OUTSIDE WHAT HIS FATHER DID THEN HE WOULD LOWER HIMSELF TO "“HUMAN” STANDARD & LIE & DECEIVE EVERYONE.

 Also remember Jesus' words at John 14:28: "YOU heard that I said to YOU, I am going away and I am coming [back] to YOU. If YOU loved me, YOU would rejoice that I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am."

Yes Jesus' own words were that his Father was greater (Greek 'meizon,' meaning "to surpass others in power and nature") than he was. Thus the Jews were wrong in their understanding of Jesus relationship with his Father, as are trinitarians..

THIS IS NOT SO AGAIN FOLKS – WHAT JESUS IS SAYING IS THAT FATHER HAS MORE AUTHORITY BY THE VIRTUE THAT HE IS THE FATHER. IN NO WAY DOES THIS MAKE JESUS ANY LESS GOD BY NATURE.

 LET’S LOOK AT IT THIS WAY – THE PRESIDENT OF USA HAS MORE POWER AND AUTHORITY THEN YOU & I  - BUT IN NO WAY IS HE A “MORE” HUMAN THEN YOU OR I. BY HUMAN NATURE WE ARE SAME – PRESIDENT & YOU & I ARE ALL HUMANS. BUT BY AUTHORITY THE PRESIDENT HAS MORE POWER THEN YOU & I.

 ANOTHER FACT TO CONSIDER HERE IS THIS. ALTHOUGH THE SON EXALTS THE FATHER – THE FATHER HAS MADE HIM ALL POWERFUL JUST AS HE IS. IN JOHN 5:22 –23 – JESUS TELLS US THIS.

JESUS DOES ALL THE JUDGING & NOT THE FATHER. THIS IS DONE SO THAT WE “HONOUR” THE SON AS WE HONOUR THE FATHER. SO – IF WE DO NOT HONOUR THE SON AS WE HONOUR THE FATHER THERE IS NO HOPE FOR US.  THE FATHER IS NOT ABOUT GO BACK ON HIS WORD & SAY I WILL JUDGE THOSE WHO HONOUR ME AND YOU (JESUS) GO & JUDGE THOSE THAT “ONLY” HONOUR YOU.

THE PASSAGE CLEARLY STATES THAT “ALL” WHO DO NOT HONOUR THE SON, DO NOT HONOUR THE FATHER.

ANOTHER PASSAGE TO CONSIDER VERY Carefully in John 12: 26 where jesus is saying: "

"WHOEVER SERVES ME MUST FOLLOW ME; AND WHERE I AM, MY SERVANT ALSO WILL BE. MY FATHER WILL HONOR THE ONE WHO SERVES ME.

NOTE THAT JESUS STATES THE THE "ONE" WHO SERVES HIM - THEN THAT ONE THE FATHER WILL HONOR!!

ALSO – JESUS IS SO POWERFUL THAT FATHER ENTRUSTED HIM TO CREATE THE ENTIRE UNIVERSE & EVERYTHING IN IT. IF THE SON WASN’T AS POWERFUL AS HIS FATHER THEN HE WOULDN’T BE ALLOWED TO DO THE CREATING.
 

 "in order that all may honor the Son just as they honor the Father. He that does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him."

Some say [JESUS SAID IT] that this verse implies that Jesus is Jehovah because we are instructed to "honor" the Son "just as" we honor the Father. Is this true?

JESUS TELLS US SO – BUT HERE WE GO AGAIN – WE HAVE TO MAKE SOMETHING ELSE UP. NO WHERE DOES IT SAY THAT JESUS IS THE FATHER - BUT YES JESUS IS JEHOVAH - SEE MALACHI 3:1 & ZAC. 12: 10 IN ANY BIBLE LIKE KJV, NIV, NRSV ETC.

Because we are to honor the Son "just as" we honor the Father, does this make Jesus Jehovah? Some will say YES!! They even take it a step further. They say that the Greek word here rendered "just as" means "to the exact degree, perfectly the same." Is this true? Let's take a look.

AGAIN FOLKS – IF IT DOES NOT THEN JESUS IS A LIAR & WE SHOULDN’T BELIEVE ANYTHING HE SAYS!

JEWS ALSO KNEW THAT FATHER WAS THE JUDGE SO THIS WAS HERETICAL TEACHING TO THEM. IT IS AMAZING THAT PEOPLE OF THAT TIME KNEW WHAT WAS BEING SAID – BUT NOW SOME HAVE TO DISCREDIT THEM & THEIR UNDERSTANDING AS WELL AS DENYING JESUS.

AS I MENTIONED ABOVE - JOHN 12: 26 MUST ALSO BE CONSIDERED WHEN COMPARING THIS PASSAGE. JESUS TELLS US THAT THE ONLY ONE THAT "FATHER" WILL HONOR  - IS THE ONE WHO SERVES HIM [JESUS].

JESUS IS EITHER A LIAR OR HE KNOWS WHAT HE IS TALKING ABOUT!!

WHO DO YOU BELIEVE - JESUS OR SOME MAN??

First let it be said, that it does not say to "worship the Son just as we worship the Father." Yet , still some imagine it means this. The reality is though, that it says to "honor" the Son.

I KEEP SAYING PLEASE READ THE “WHOLE BOOK” & YOU WILL GET THE ANSWERS – IN HEBREWS 1:6 GOD TELLS US  & ANGELS TO “WORSHIP” HIS ON.

What does this mean? The Greek word translated "honor" is "timao." It means to "hold in esteem, consider precious, to revere." It is also used at Matthew 15:4 of the way you should view your parents: "For example, God said, 'Honor your father and your mother'; and, 'Let him that reviles father or mother end up in death.'

AGAIN THE AUTHOR IS CONFUSING THE ISSUES – HOW WE HUMANS ARE TO REACT TO OUR PARENTS & GOD ARE TWO  DIFFERENT ISSUES.

TO HONOUR IS TO RECOGNIZE THE VALUE OF SOMETHING OR SOME THING & TO ACT ACCORDINGLY. THOSE WHO DEMONSTRATE A LACK OF CONCERN FOR MATTERS OF HONOUR & SHAME ARE SHAMELESS. HAVING REJECTED THE ‘FRAMEWORK” FOR VALUES, SUCH WILL DO ANYTHING. EVEN TEAR APART THE WORD OF GOD SO TO SUIT THEIR OWN TEACHINGS.

WORSHIP IN THE BIBLE MOVES BACK & FORTH BETWEEN PERSONAL EXPERIENCE & CORPORATE EXPERIENCE.

PERSONAL EXPERIENCE MAY OCCUR ALONE AT HOME OR TOGETHER WITH OTHER WORSHIPPERS.

WHERE CORPORATE WORSHIP IS EMPOWERED BY PERSONAL EXPERIENCE. THAT’S WHY CHRISTIANS ARE ENCOURAGED TO GATHER TOGETHER & WORSHIP GOD IN ONE PLACE.

TO WORSHIP IS TO HONOUR & TO HONOUR IS TO WORSHIP. THESE TWO WORDS ARE INTERTWINED TOGETHER. YOU CAN NOT DO ONE WITHOUT OTHER. HOWEVER – BOTH WORDS CAN BE TAKEN OUT OF CONTEXT WHEN WE TAKE IT IN FULL CONTEXT.

IF WE HONOUR THE GROUND THAT A PERSON IS WALKING ON – THEN WE ARE “IDOLIZING’ THAT PERSON, WHICH IS AGAINST GOD’S COMMANDS. IF WE WORSHIP THE GROUND THAT THE PERSON WALKS ON – AGAIN WE ARE “IDOLIZING” BUT A DIFFERENT ADJECTIVE IS USED. YET THE SAME CONSEQUENCE ARISES – THAT IS “IDOLATRY” OF A PERSON OR GROUND THAT HE/SHE WALKS ON.

THESE TWO WORDS SHOULD BE USED IN CONTEXT OF THE VERSES & WHO WE SHOULD BE WORSHIPING & HONOURING & NOT MISS USE OF MEANINGS SO TO SUIT OUR OWN TEACHINGS & UNDERSTANDINGS.

Christians certainly are not to "worship" their parents are they?

NOT IN THE CONTEXT THAT THE AUTHOR ALLUDES TO – THAT WOULD BE “IDOLATRY” – BUT WE CAN WORSHIP IN THE SENSE OF ADMIRING OUR WIFE & CHILDREN. THIS WORD HAS MORE THEN ONE CONNOTATION ATTACHED TO IT.

WHEN WE WORSHIP GOD – WE ARE WORSHIPPING IN THE SENSE OF HIGHER  BEING BY NATURE “GOD”, BUT BY WORSHIPPING “LOWER” FORM BY NATURE “HUMANS”  – THAT IS A DIFFERENT THING ALTOGETHER.

 Next, the Greek word translated "just as" is "kathos." Just what does this word mean? Does it Mean to the “exact degree?” No. This word “means” according as, in the manner that.” Notice it does not say to the same exact degree. We see proof that "kathos" literally cannot mean "to the same exact degree" in 1 John 2:6 where it appears: "He that says he remains in union with him is under obligation himself also to go on walking just as that one walked."

NOT SO – WHEN I AM INSTRUCTED TO DO SOMETHING “JUST AS” THEN I “MUST” DO
IT EXACTLY AS IT IS INSTRUCTED –

OTHERWISE I AM LEAVING SOMETHING OUT.

I COULD PRETEND THAT I AM WORSHIPING BY GOING TO CHURCH, BUT THAT IS NOT “JUST AS” DOING IT 100% WITH MY HEART ALSO.

FOR ME TO WORSHIP “EXACTLY” OR TO THE SAME DEGREE I MUST DO IT 100% WITH MY HEART ALSO – OTHERWISE I AM ALSO PRETENDING SOMETHING & NOT DOING IT “EXACTLY” AS INSTRUCTED.
 

WHEN I AM DOING SOMETHING “EXACTLY” THEN I AM DOING IT “JUST AS” I WAS ASKED TO DO IT.

THEREFORE WE MUST DO IT EXACTLY AS WE WERE INSTRUCTED & THAT IS “JUST AS” JESUS TOLD US. OTHERWISE WE ARE PRETENDERS & NOT TRUE WORSHIPPERS OF GOD’S WORD.

This verse is telling us that Christians need to walk just as Christ, the perfect man walked. Now the question is: "Can anyone walk "exactly as, to the exact degree" that Jesus walked? [NO – BUT WE CAN STRIVE FOR IT ALL THE TIME]- Are we perfect? NO- Better still, if Jesus is God, how can we walk "exactly to the same degree" as God? We cannot!  Clearly then, to honor the son just as we honor the Father does not mean that Jesus is Jehovah.

AGAIN & AGAIN THIS AUTHOR IS COMPARING MAN WITH GOD. THIS IS NOT POSSIBLE.

WE HUMANS “MUST” HONOUR & WORSHIP GOD “JUST AS” HE INSTRUCTED US & NOT HE US.

IF WE DO NOT HONOR THE SON AS WE ARE TOLD IN THIS PASSAGE - THEN HIS AFTER WILL NOT HONOR US - John 12; 26.

THE CHOICE IS YOURS - YOU EITHER DO OR YOU DON'T & YOU HONOR THE WISHES OF SOME MEN!!

 "Jesus said to them: "Most truly I say to YOU, Before Abraham came into existence, I have been."

NO HE DID NOT – HE SAID & I QUOTE:  “VERILY, VERILY, (Truly, truly) I SAY TO YOU, before Abraham was , I am.”

TAKE A LOOK IN NWT "KIT" & YOU WILL SEE THAT THE WORDS "I AM" ARE USED - BUT WHEN RENDERED GB DIDN'T RENDER IT ACCORDING TO HOW IT SHOULD HAVE BEEN DONE.

This verse has caused some to say that here, Jesus is making a claim to being God because he is applying the identity of Jehovah as revealed at Exodus 3:14 to himself. Is this the case? Let's see. With regard to the use of "ego eimi" by Jehovah at Isaiah 43:10, as well as Jesus' use of "ego eimi" at this verse, please see the comments on John 13:19 below.

AGAIN THIS AUTHOR IS TELLING JESUS & THE JEWS THAT THEY DIDN’T KNOW WHAT WERE TALKING ABOUT.

JESUS KNOWS WHO HE IS !!

JEWS KNEW WHAT JESUS WAS SAYING - THAT IS WHY THEY PICKED UP STONES TO STONE HIM!!

Some translations, like the King James, translate this verse as ".... Before Abraham was, I am." They say that it is the same as Exodus 3:14 where in the KJ translation, and others, Jehovah said ".....God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM.......I AM hath sent you." hey say that this is the very same title. Is this the case? Well, even the King James translators knew that John 8:58 was not a direct claim by Jesus to Exodus 3:14. This is evident by the fact that they used small capital letters in the Exodus "I AM," and did Not use small capital letters in the John "I am." But there is much more to it than that.

JEWS WOULDN’T BE ABLE TO STONE JESUS UNLESS HE WAS MAKING HIMSELF “GOD” OF OT (EX. 3:14) – BUT THEY DID TRY TO STONE HIM – SO WHAT DOES THIS AUTHOR KNOW THAT JEWS DIDN’T GRASP??

The Greek at John 8:58 is "ego eimi." It can be properly translated in the English as "I am," like at John 9:9. (Which by the way was spoken by the former blind beggar man...was he claiming to be God?)

DIFFERENT PERSON DIFFERENT CONTEXT = -  NWT TRANSLATE IT AS "I AM" ALSO - BUT THEY RENDER IT WRONG = TAKE A LOOK IN YOUR OWN KIT & YOU WILL SEE THAT THIS IS EXACTLY HOW IT SHOULD BE TRANSLATED!!

And at 1 Chronicles 21:17 where David said (in the LXX) "ego eimi," or "I am." (Was David claiming to be God as well?) Also due to the sentence structure of John 8:58, it can also be correctly translated as "I have been." But is the Greek at John 8:58, the same Greek found at Exodus 3:14?

FIRST OF - EXODUS WAS WRITTEN IN ARAMIC & NOT GREEK - SO OBVIOUSLY ARAMIC WORDS FOR " I AM" ARE USED.

BUT GOD USED THE SAME WORDS – DOES THAT MAKE HIM EQUAL TO DAVID?

COME ON PLEASE FOLKS – THIS REASONING IS SO FAR OUT THAT IT IS IMPOSSIBLE TO KEEP GOING.

ANYONE WHO HAS THE 1984 LARGE – PRINT NEW WORLD TRANSLATION OF THE HOLY SCRIPTURES WITH REFERENCES HAS A FOOTNOTE ON EXODUS 3:14, ADMITTING THAT THE HEBREW WOULD BE RENDERED INTO GREEK AS “Eigo eimi)” – “I am.” AND THEIR 1985

KINGDOM INTERLINEAR TRANSLATION OF THE GREEK SCRIPTURES REVEALS THAT JESUS’ WORDS AT JOHN 8:58 ARE SAME: “ego eimi”, “I am” ( INTERLINEAR TEXT) & FOOT NOTES.

The Greek at Exodus 3:14 in the LXX ( The Septuagint, meaning the 70, Which is the Hebrew Aramaic scriptures translated into Greek) is "ego eimi ho on." Literally meaning, "I am the being," or "I am The One who is." In the second part of the verse (translated as "I AM hath sent me unto you" in the KJ) the Greek words translated "I AM" in the KJ are "ho on" literally "the being." Notice as well that Jesus did NOT say "Before Abraham was, "the being."

So then, according to the Bible, if John 8:58 were a claim to Exodus 3:14, as trinitarians imagine, then Jesus would have had to say, "ego eimi ho on," But according to the Greek TEXT Jesus said "ego eimi", NOT "ego eimi ho on."

IT IS NOT NECESSARY TO DO THAT - IN DIFFERENT LANGUAGES - THERE ARE CERTAIN PARTS OF THE LANGUAGE THAT ARE "UNDERSTOOD" & THERE IS NO NEED TO GO TO GREAT LENGTHS TO EXPLAIN "EVERY" LITTLE WHIM!!

NO ONE WOULD READ THE BOOKS THEN - WOULD THEY?? IF IN EVERY PARAGRAPH THE AUTHOR HAD TO WRITE IN THE "UNDERSTOOD" PARTS OF THE GRAMMAR.