The Bible says He created ALL things and nothing came into existence without Him, (Jn. 1:3, NWT, NIV, NRSV, NAS.)

The Bible is inspired and cannot contradict itself. Furthermore,  honest translations must not contradict themselves.

The NWT renders Col. 1:16 Jesus as creating “all [other] things”, thus making Him a part of the creation.

Since the NWT renders Jn. 1:3 differently these two verses stand in an apparent contradiction to each other and draws into question the validity of this theological translation.

He created this system of things (Literally, the ages or cosmos), Heb. 1:2. One cannot create that which one is subject to. This is supported by the relevant fact that if Jehovah is Eternal he isn’t subject to time, in fact time to Him doesn’t exist, He transcends it, He created time. That Jesus isn’t subject to time and is changeless is evident by the fact that he is “the same yesterday and today and forever”, NAS, (Heb 13:8).

Even in the NWT “God is” Jesus’ “Throne forever and ever”, Heb. 1:8. Even using this “translation” how can God be a figurative throne to Jesus forever and ever if Jesus did not exist at some point in the past? But the watchtower attempts to diminish this by saying that it’s just figurative and even if it were literal the terms used for “forever and ever” in Greek, ‘eis ton aiona tou aionos’ could just mean a real long time.

Even if this point were true there is no escaping Jude 25 “to [the] only God our Savior through Jesus Christ our Lord, be glory, majesty, might and authority for all past eternity and now and into all eternity. Amen”, NWT. It’s impossible for Very God Himself to have glory, majesty, might, and authority through an alleged contingent created being for all time infinite because contingent beings do not, by definition, exist for all time infinite.

But isn’t Jesus subject to God and less than Him?

In order to answer we need to understand in what context this is asked in. It is argued that being subject to the Father means the Son was inferior to Him. If this then wouldn’t it be true that Sinless Jesus would be inferior to his sinful Earthly parents, Lk. 2:51. Of course He wasn’t! Obviously, He was positionally subject to them but better in His nature. Similarly, Jesus could willingly be subject to but possessing the same nature and be still be equal to His Father. This also answers why Jesus could say “The Father is greater than I” in Jn 14:28 and “I and the Father are one [thing]” in Jn. 10:30 and not contradict. Even a quick examination of a few Greek words in context in scriptures reveals this. The word used for “greater” in Jn. 14:28 is ‘meizon’. It means here in context ‘positional greater’. In Heb. 1:4 we read that Jesus has a better nature than the angels from the word ‘kreitton’, which means in context here  ‘better by nature.”