Some notes and comments on various Biblical texts some have used to promote the doctrine of the Trinity. The main approach that will be used to arrive at a proper balanced view of these texts is based on the FACT that the Bible interprets itself.

"In the year that King Uz·zi'ah died I, however, got to see Jehovah, sitting on a throne lofty and lifted up, and his skirts were filling the temple."
 

IN NIV. WE READ THAT IT WAS THE "LORD" WHO WAS SEATED ON THE THRONE = ONE OF MANY MISUSES OF THE WORDS & CHANGED TO MEAN SOMETHING ELSE.

THE PASSAGE READS LIKE THIS: "IN THE YEAR THAT KING UZZIAH DIED, I SAW THE LORD SEATED ON THE THRONE, HIGH AND EXALTED, AND THE TRAIN OF HIS ROBE FILLED THE TEMPLE."

This is a rather obscure text that some have used as a reference to John's words at John 12:41 which read: "Isaiah said these things because he saw his [Jesus] glory, and he spoke about him. [Jesus]"  Some then, attempt to identify the vision of Isaiah's
seeing Jehovah in his temple, as actually being a vision of the pre human Jesus. Thus, they attempt to say that Jesus was  Jehovah. Is this the case? Is John 12:41 a reference to Isaiah's vision here at Isaiah 6:1?

WE HAVE NOTED THAT THE WORD SHOULD BE "LORD" & NOT JEHOVAH & WE HAVE ESTABLISHED IN GENESIS SECTION THAT IN REALITY IT IS JESUS  WHO IS THE SPEAKER IN OT. AS NO ONE HAS SEEN NOR HEARD THE FATHER – (John 1:18 & 6:46)

Let us reason on this by reading the entire account found in the book of John chapter 12. We read starting with verse 36: "While YOU have the light exercise faith in the light, in order to become sons of light."

BEFORE WE GO ON WE HAVE TO ESTABLISH WHO THIS LIGHT IS – IN John 8:12 we read

" WHEN JESUS SPOKE AGAIN TO THE PEOPLE, HE SAID – 'I AM THE LIGHT OF THE WORLD. WHOEVER FOLLOWS ME WILL NEVER WALK IN DARKNESS, BUT WILL HAVE THE LIGHT OF LIFE'" –

THE WORD OF GOD CLEARLY STATES THAT THE "LIGHT" IS JESUS - {LETS GO ON}

Jesus spoke these things and went off and hid from them. But although he had performed so many signs before them, they were not putting faith in him, so that the word of Isaiah the prophet was fulfilled which he said: " Jehovah, who has put faith in the thing heard by us? And as for the arm of Jehovah,  to whom has it been revealed?"  [a quote of Isaiah 53:1]

NOW WE WILL SEE WHO JEHOVAH IS – I WILL CITE TWO PASSAGES BUT I ADVISE THAT YOU GO THROUGH THE ENTIRE "KIT" & SEE FOR YOUR SELF –

IN MARK 12: 29 NWT TRANSLATES THE GREEK WORD "KURIOS" AS LORD (which is correct) = BUT WHEN THEY RENDER IT IN THE RIGHT HAND SIDE COLUMN – THEY USE THE WORD "JEHOVAH"  TO MAKE MATTERS EVEN WORSE  IN VERSE 37 THEY AGAIN TRANSLATE KURIOS AS LORD – BUT THIS TIME THEY RENDER IT AS "LORD"

LETS FACE IT = THEY CAN NOT HAVE IT BOTH WAYS – THIS WORD ONLY HAS ONE MEANING & THAT IS "LORD" SO WHY WOULD THEY DO THIS SOME 230 TIMES IN THE NWT?

THE ANSWER LIES IN DECEPTION & TO TEACH THEIR WAY & NOT ACCORDING TO THE WORD OF GOD

The reason why they were not able to believe is that again Isaiah said: "He has blinded their eyes and he has made their hearts hard, that they should not see with their eyes and get the thought with their hearts and turn around and I should heal them." [a quote of Isaiah 6:10] Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory, and he spoke about him."

Here we see, that John made reference to two different parts of Isaiah's writings.

THIS IS WHAT WE CALL SUPPORTING YOUR STATEMENTS – THE MORE REFERENCES TO THE ORIGINAL – THE MORE REASON THAT THE STATEMENT IS TRUE & CORRECT.

In verse 37 we learn about the crowds lack of faith in Jesus as the Messiah.  John, then in verse 38, tells us that this was  prophetic because the "arm of Jehovah" [Jesus] would not be revealed, and they would not put faith in the things heard (by Isaiah initially, and then in the Greater Isaiah, Jesus).

Verse 39 then tells us that the nation of Israel as a whole, rejected the Christ due to the condition of their heart, to which John then quotes Isaiah 6:10 in verse 40 as a fulfilment.

THIS IS NOT TRUE!  THIS VERSE TELLS US THAT JEWS WHO DID NOT OPEN THEIR HEARTS & EARS TO JESUS - MAINLY TEACHES OF THE LAW & PHARISEES - THEIR EYES & THEIR HEARTS WERE BLINDED.

THERE WERE MANY WHO DID BELIEVE JESUS - MAINLY POOR & THOSE WHO WERE REJECTED BY THE PHARISEES & TEACHES OF THE LAW.

Thus when John in verse 41 tells us that Isaiah saw his [Jesus'] glory, it hardly is an identifier of Jesus as Jehovah. For we remember in Isaiah 6:8 we read: "And I began to hear the voice of Jehovah saying: REMEMBER NO ONE HAS SEEN NOR HEARD THE FATHER – (John 1:18 &  6:46)"Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?" And I proceeded to say: - "Here I am! Send me."

PLEASE NOTE THAT IT IS "ISAIAH" WHO IS SAYING SEND ME –THIS PASSAGE TALKS ABOUT "ISAIAH'S COMMISSION" -

(more on this verse directly below) - Here we see that Jehovah is speaking with his Son Jesus in heaven,

NO – IT IS LORD SPEAKING TO ISAIAH

-of which Isaiah responded to the call to action by Jehovah, by saying, "Here I am. Send me!" THIS IS TRUE - Jesus, as the Greater Isaiah, was sent by Jehovah from the heavenly temple (as Isaiah was sent),

NOW THE AUTHOR  CONFUSE THE ISSUE – ONE MINUTE THE AUTHOR IS  SAYING THAT IT IS ISAIAH & THEN THEY CHANGE IT TO SAY THE IT WAS JESUS – AT ALL TIMES IT WAS ISAIAH WHO WAS SENT & NOT JESUS

- as the "arm of Jehovah." Hence, we see that Jesus was indeed associated with the glory of Jehovah in his heavenly temple. So, for Isaiah to say of Jesus that he saw his glory, is not surprising, for Jesus was most certainly with Jehovah in heaven, prior to his being sent forth to earth. (Prov. 30:4) Isaiah's prophetic vision was indeed of Jesus' future glory, {NOT ISAIAH 6 – SEE NOTE BELOW} - as seeing the one who would come as the "arm of Jehovah," in fulfilment of Isaiah chapter 53.

YES THIS IS TRUE – ISAIAH 53 TALKS ABOUT JESUS & WHAT WILL HAPPEN TO HIM WHEN HE COMES.

BUT WE ARE CONFUSING ISAIAH 6 WITH ISAIAH 53.

IN ISAIAH 6 - ISAIAH SEES JESUS THEN & NOT IN THE FUTURE.

ISAIAH 53 TALKS ABOUT FUTURE EVENTS.

PLEASE READ THE ENTIRE CHAPTER OF ISAIAH 6 & YOU WILL SEE THAT IT TALKS ABOUT ISAIAH'S "COMMISSION" TO TELL HIS PEOPLE WHAT WILL HAPPEN TO THEM

"And I began to hear the voice of Jehovah saying: "Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?"  And I proceeded to say: "Here I am! Send me. And he went on to say: "Go, and you must say to  this people, 'Hear again and again, O men, but do not understand; and see again and again, but do not get any knowledge.'"

Here Jehovah says, "who will go for US." AND ISAIAH VOLUNTEERED TO TELL PEOPLE OF ISAIAH'S TIME THE TERRIBLE THINGS TO COME -

Please see notes on Gen. 1:26; 3:22.

Also for a discussion on "the voice of Jehovah saying," verses "the holy spirit saying," please see Acts 28:25,26 under the Book of Acts section. SEE ACTS 5:3-4

There are a couple of thoughts brought out by trinitarians to promote the Trinity (or at least the idea that Jesus is God {LOOK AT THE VERSE & THE WORDS MIGHTY GOD) from this verse. We shall analyze each of them one at a time.

Mighty God.

Some say that because Jesus is called "Mighty God" he is the Almighty Jehovah God! Notice please that the verse says
If Jesus WERE Jehovah he ALREADY WOULD BE CALLED "Mighty God." Also Jehovah cannot become "Mighty God," he already IS Mighty God." Isaiah 10:21 (more on t his verse in a moment)

THERE IS THE INCARNATION TO CONSIDER – CHANGE OF FORM – JESUS WOULD BE OF SAME POWER & GLORY IN "FLESH" AS HE IS IN THE "SPIRIT".

 THIS VERSE IS TALKING ABOUT  "INCARNATION" OF CHRIST – THAT IS CHANGE OF FORM FROM HIS "SPIRITUAL" STATE TO HIS "HUMAN" STATE – WHEN HE BECAME FLESH HE WAS GIVEN A NAME IN THIS PASSAGE – ALSO NOT THAT JESUS IN THIS PASSAGE IS CALLED "ETERNAL FATHER" – HOW CAN HE BE "ETERNAL FATHER" UNLESS HE IS THE MOST HIGH?

WT TEACHES TO DISTINGUISH BETWEEN THE FATHER & THE SON BY CALLING FATHER "ALL" MIGHTY & JESUS  " MIGHTY" THEY LIKE TO CHANGE THE STORY SO TO SUIT THEIR OWN REASONING – SOME HOW THE SON IS LOWER "KIND" THEN THE FATHER

ANOTHER POINT TO CONSIDER IS JOHN 1:1 WHERE NWT CALLS JESUS "a god" -

Lets get real here - WHO IS JESUS  "a god" -  MIGHTY GOD? - HE CAN NOT BE BOTH!!

IN MALACHI 3:1 & MATTHEW 3:3 == NWT TELLS US THAT JOHN THE BAPTIST WILL PREPARE THE WAY FOR JEHOVAH.

NOW WE HAVE - "a god" - Mighty God & Jehovah - which one is HE ?? also as john 1:18 & 6:46 tells us no one has seen nor heard the father - then who is talking to Isaiah??

JESUS RIGHT AS HE IS THE ONLY ONE WHO HAS SEEN THE FATHER.

NEARLY FORGOT JOHN 1: 3 & PHLIPPIANS 2:6 - NWT CALLS JESUS GOD & IN GENESIS 1 NWT CALLS JESUS "GOD" & IN GENESIS 2:7 IT CALLS JESUS JEHOVAH AGAIN.

IT WOULD BE SO NICE IF THEY WOULD MAKE UP THEIR OWN MIND UP.

Next, let's note that others in the Bible that are called "God" and are not literally Jehovah God. Please see Ps. 8:5 where angels are called 'Elohim' (God): "You also  proceeded to make him a little less than godlike ones, And with glory and splendour you then crowned him."

ANGELS ARE HEAVENLY BEINGS – KJV TRANSLATES THE WORD "ANGELS" & NIV – TRANSLATES THE WORD "HEAVENLY BEINGS" WHAT THIS MEANS IS THAT THE WORD "MUST BE" TRANSLATED ACCORDING TO CONTEXT THAT IT IS USED .

The word translated into the English "godlike ones" is 'elohim.' This word refers to angels. To Biblically prove this, please compare Heb. 2:7; where Paul quotes Psalm 8:5 and says: "You made him a little lower than angels; with glory and honor you crowned him, and appointed him over the works of your hands."

Here the apostle Paul showed that when the Psalmist used the term "godlike ones," or "elohim" in the Hebrew, he was referring to the angels. The word 'elohim' is translated in other verses of the Bible as "God." Thus because angels are called "elohim" or God, are they literally Jehovah? No, nor is Jesus because he is called "Mighty God."

AGAIN THE AUTHOR IS COMPARING TWO DIFFERENT THINGS –

JUST AS YOU & I CAN BE CALLED "ELOHIM" BY MEN – IT DOES NOT MAKE US "MIGHTY GODS" EITHER – BUT IN CONTEXT OF THINGS – I OR YOU MIGHT HAVE MORE AUTHORITY OVER SOMEONE & THEY REFER TO US AS "MIGHTY GODS" – IT’S A FIGURE OF SPEECH & NOT COMPARISON TO "JESUS".

In fact, the Bible shows that there are many rightfully called "God" in the Bible. For a clear cut evidence of this please see Psalms 136:2 which reads: "Give thanks to  the God of the gods: For his loving kindness is to time indefinite."

AS THERE IS ONE ENGLISH WORD TRANSLATED IN TO GOD FROM HEBREW MANY WORDS LIKE " EL - ELOHIM - ADONAI - ELSHADDAI ETC.  - YET IT IS ONE WORD IN ENGLISH "GOD."

SO WHEN PSALMIST TELLS US THAT WE ARE TO GIVE THANKS TO GOD OF gods - THEN WE ARE TO DO IT.

WE HUMANS & ESPECIALLY OF THE "OT" TIME - THERE WERE MANY KINGS WHO CONSIDERED THEM S ELVES AS gods OVER THEIR SUBJECTS AS THEY HAD THE POWER TO KILL THEM ON THE SPOT. SO THEY ELEVATED THEM SELVES TO god  STATUS

THAT DOES NOT MAKE THEM JESUS - WHO IN HIS PRE HUMAN STATE WAS GOD IN SPIRITUAL FORM PHILPPIANS 2: 6 TITUS 2:13 ETC.

Now is Jehovah the God of FALSE GODS?? NO! Because they don't exist!

IN OUR HUMAN UNDERSTANDING & LANGUAGE – WE DO NOT HAVE OTHER WORDS TO DESCRIBE "GOD" SO EVEN WE IN ENGLISH USE THE WORD – ‘god’  TO DESCRIBE FALSE ‘gods’ – AT THE SAME TIME   WE  USE THE WORD "GOD" TO DESCRIBE THE FATHER IN HEAVEN "GOD"

AND YES - JESUS IS "GOD" OF FALSE gods - HOW HYPOCRITICAL TO SAY THAT HE IS NOT.

For a further discussion of 'elohim,' See Genesis 1:1 notes.

Secondly, the title here of Jesus is "MIGHTY GOD." The Hebrew word translated "Mighty God" is "El Gibbohr." If Jesus WERE ALMIGHTY God, then the Hebrew word would be different. It would be "El Shaddai" as in Genesis 17:1 where it reads: "When A'bram got to be ninety-nine years old, then Jehovah appeared to A'bram and said to him: "I am God
Almighty." (El Shaddai)

PLEASE REMEMBER THAT NO ONE HAS SEEN FATHER – I KNOW – I KEEP REFERRING BACK TO JOHN 1:18 & 6:46 – BUT IT IS IMPORTANT TO DO THIS SO THAT WE DO NOT LOSE FOCUS OF BIGGER PICTURE – WE WILL COVER THIS IN REVELATION 1 & 22 IN MORE DETAIL.

Thus, we see that Jesus in Isaiah 9:6 is NOT called "ALMIGHTY" God, but rather "Mighty" God." And a Mighty God he is!!

NOW WE COME TO A BIG PROBLEM – JESUS IS "MIGHTY GOD" & FATHER IS "ALMIGHTY GOD" THAT GIVES US TWO SUPREME POWERS OF "GOD"

BUT BIBLE TELLS US THAT THERE IS NO OTHER "GOD’S" THERE IS ONLY ONE (Isaiah 44:8) AS GOD – DOES NOT RECOGNIZE ANY OTHER -

NOW THE AUTHOR IS  MAKING THINGS UP AGAIN – SO TO SUIT HIS  OWN UNDERSTANDING.

WHEN BIBLE TELLS US THAT THERE IS NOT "OTHER" GODS – THEN HOW CAN HE HAVE A "MIGHT & ALL MIGHTY" GOD  & GOD & a god - ??

HE CAN right - THAT IS HIS FREE GIFT OF FREEDOM  OF SPEECH!

BUT – AS ONE IS LOWER THEN THE OTHER & GOD DOES NOT "RECOGNIZE ANY" GODS AS SUCH.

THEREFORE ONE OF THESE MUST BE FALSE – WHICH ONE IS IT ??

THE MIGHTY GOD OR ALMIGHTY GOD OR GOD OR  a god?

AS MENTIONED EARLIER JESUS IS CALLED "a god" in John 1:1 – which makes Jesus even lower then the "Mighty God"  - OR SHOULD I SAY IT – ON THE SAME LEVEL AS DEVIL AS HE IS CALLED THE god OF THIS LOWER WORLD.

IT CAN NOT BE! OR CAN IT?

Some however say that Jehovah himself is ALSO called "Mighty God" at Isaiah 10:21 which reads: "A mere remnant will return, the remnant of Jacob, to the Mighty God." They then reason that this makes Jesus "Jehovah" because they BOTH share
the same title. Is this sound Biblical reasoning? YES – IT IS BIBLICAL TRUTH.

Well, let's think about this for a few moments. Jesus is spoken of at Revelation 17:14 which reads: "These will battle with the Lamb, but, because he is Lord of lords and King of kings, the Lamb will conquer them."

Here Jesus is said to be called "King of kings."

NOW WE ARE CHANGING THE SUBJECT SO TO CONFUSE & MAKE SOMETHING ELSE UP -  IF ONE CAN NOT REASON THINGS – THEN CONFUSE & HOPE THAT YOU OVERCOME TOUGH QUESTIONS. WE ARE DISCUSSING ISAIAH PASSAGE & NOT REVELATION - WE ARE DISCUSSING THE ISSUE OF "MIGHT  GOD" & NOT KING OF KINGS = BUT WE WILL GET TO THE BOTTOM OF IT EVENTUALLY.

If we turn to Daniel 2:36, we read: "You, O king, the king of kings, you to whom the God of heaven has given the kingdom, the might, and the strength and the dignity."

SEE WHAT I MEAN - WE STARTED IN ISAIAH - THEN WE HAD  A QUICK GLANCE IN TO REVELATION & THEN GET OUT OF THERE SO THAT A PERSON DOES NOT WAKE UP TO WHAT IS BEING DONE & THEN GO TO DANIEL - WOW!!

In this verse we read Daniel's words to King Nebuchadnezzar. Notice Nebuchadnezzar is called "king of kings"…Are we to conclude that Jesus is Nebuchadnezzar because they BOTH share the same title? Obviously NOT!!

HERE WE GO – I CALL MY SELF A KING OF KINGS OF MY CLAN – & THEN ALL OF A SUDDEN I AM  SAME AS GOD?  YEAH RIGHT !!

IN ANY LANGUAGE THERE ARE WORDS THAT ARE USED TO DESCRIBE MANY THINGS & THEY MUST BE USED AS SUCH – BUT MORE TO THE POINT –WE MUST COMPARE "APPLES WITH APPLES’ & NOT WITH "ORANGES".

IF WE TAKE ANY ONE VERSE IN THE BIBLE & THEN COMPARE IT TO ANOTHER THAT DOES NOT "RELATE" TO IT – WE CAN "MAKE UP" ANYTHING THAT WE WANT.

HOW CAN ANY REASONABLE PERSON COMPARE JESUS WITH KING OF THIS WORLD?? I AM NOT  BEING CONDESCENDING HERE - JUST TRYING TO GET REAL ABOUT LIFE & OUR LANGUAGE.

I COULD SAY THAT MY ROOSTER IS THE KING OF HIS CLAN OF CHOOKS - BUT DOES THAT MAKE HIM A KING OF MY OR YOUR FAMILY?

NO IT DOES NOT - RIGHT!!

SAME APPLIES TO THE ABOVE ARGUMENT - LETS COMPARE FACTS WITH REALITY & NOT MOTHER GOOSE OR SOME OTHER COMIC STRIP.

The only way that it can be done – is to deceive the reader & make things up & deny GOD of His Glory.

Jesus is to be called "Mighty God," NOT, Jehovah the "Almighty God." ONLY Jehovah God himself is EVER called "El Shaddai" (God Almighty) in scripture. Jesus NOR the Holy Spirit is ever given this title. This is not so -

IN REVELATION 1:8 JESUS CALLS HIM SELF THE ALMIGHTY – WE WILL COVER THIS LATER ALSO WE ALSO FIND THIS WORD IN GEN. 17:1 WHERE GOD IDENTIFIES HIMSELF IN THIS WAY TO ABRAHAM.

ONE REASON THAT THE WORD ELSHADDAI IS NOT USED IN REVELATION - IS - BECAUSE NT WAS WRITTEN IN GREEK LANGUAGE & NOT ARAMAIC OR HEBREW.

Eternal Father

Some say the Hebrew word translated "Eternal," or "Everlasting" means eternal both ways, that is, from all eternity. Or simply put, without beginning, or ending. Is this the case? SURE DOES !!

IN MICAH 5:2 WE READ THAT THE SAVIOUR OF JUDAH WILL COME FROM BETHLEHEM WHOSE COMINGS ARE "FROM" EVERLASTING - !!

I WONDER WHO THAT WAS??  JESUS RIGHT!!

Again we are going to let the Bible interpret itself.? SORRY FOLKS - BUT IF WE DID THAT THEN WE WOULDN'T BE DISCUSSING ISAIAH 9: 6 IN REVELATION & DANIEL - BUT WE WOULD USE THE ISAIAH PASSAGE AS TRUE WORD OF GOD & WE  WOULD NOT TRY TO MAKE MOCKERY OF IT !!

The Hebrew word translated "Eternal" here is "ad." It literally means "perpetually, continually." How is this word used elsewhere in the Bible?

NOTE THE WORD "CONTINUALLY" THIS HAS NO BEGINNING BUT IT GOES ROUND & ROUND & ROUND JUST LIKE A WEDDING RING – THE ROUND BAND IS CONTINUAL & THERE IS NO BEGINNING & NO END – UNLESS YOU CUT IT & make it something else that it wasn't meant to be!

Does it imply the idea of NO beginning or ending? Let's see.  YES IT DOES!!

Habakkuk 3:6 reads: "He stood still, that he might shake up [the] earth. He saw, and then caused nations to leap. And the eternal (ad) mountains got to be smashed; the indefinitely lasting hills bowed down. The walkings of long ago are his."

Here the mountains are referred to as being "ad" or eternal. Did the mountains have a beginning?

NOW WE ARE COMPARING APPLES & ORANGES AGAIN. WE HAVE GONE FORM ISAIAH TO REVELATION TO DANIEL & NOW IN HABAKKUK TRYING TO DISPROVE WHAT GOD TOLD US IN ISAIAH -

AGAIN THE CONTEXT OF THE WORD MUST BE UNDERSTOOD FROM WHAT IT IS. IT’S
LIKE COMPARING A NEW BORN CHILD & HIS/HER PARENTS IN AGE STATUS – YES
THEY ARE ALL "HUMANS" BUT IN AGE THEY ARE DIFFERENT.  A MOUNTAIN & GOD
CAN NOT BE COMPARED IN THE SAME WAY.

Psalms 37:29 reads: "The righteous themselves will possess the earth, And they will reside forever (ad) upon it."

Here, "ad" is translated "forever." Do those who live forever on the earth have no beginning?

AGAIN COMPARING APPLES & ORANGES – THE AUTHOR IS COMPARING THE SALVATION THAT JESUS PROVIDED WITH HIS SHED BLOOD & JESUS' ETERNITY.

THAT IS LIKE COMPARING A POT & THE POT MAKER – INSTEAD OF COMPARING TWO POTS OR TWO POT MAKERS. COMPARISON "MUST" BE OF THE SAME KIND & NOT DIFFERENT KINDS.

JESUS IS THE ONE WHO MADE US - SO HOW CAN WE BE COMPARED TO HIS ETERNITY?

These are just two examples of the use of the word "ad" in the Bible. And at both places, we see that the word refers to going forward from one starting point on into forever in one direction, FORWARD. The Bible uses this term at least another 39 times throughout the Hebrew/Aramaic text. And at all instances, this term always has the same meaning.

THE CONTEXT OF EACH PASSAGE MUST BE CONSIDERED - & THEN APPLES MUST BE COMPARED WITH APPLES

LETS TAKE THIS ONE STEP FURTHER -

IN GENESIS 1:1  IT SAYS THAT =   IN THE BEGINNING GOD CREATED HEAVEN & EARTH & EVERYTHING IN IT - I AM SURE YOU WILL AGREE WITH ME ON THIS SO FAR!!

NOW LETS DRAW A STRAIGHT LINE OF THIS CREATION -

I WOULD LIKE YOU TO DRAW YOUR SELF A LINE LIKE THIS & NOW PLACE JESUS ON IT!!

REMEMBER THAT IN JOHN 1:1 IT SAYS THAT JESUS WAS IN THE BEGGING WITH GOD. SO WHERE DO YOU PLACE HIM ON THIS LINE - WHERE DO YOU SEE THAT JESUS IS NOT THE ONE WHO CREATED EVERYTHING AS JOHN 1:3 STATES??

 Also, Jesus "becomes" the "Eternal Father" to ONLY those that exercise faith in his ransom sacrifice.  John 3:16 reads: "For God loved the world so much that he gave his only-begotten Son, in order that everyone exercising faith in him might not be destroyed but have everlasting life."

SO TRUE – BUT WE MUST COMPARE THOSE THAT BELIEVE IN HIM & THOSE THAT DO NOT BELIEVE IN HIM.

IS JESUS TRUE GOD TO YOU??  IF HE IS NOT THEN YOU DO NOT EXERCISE FAITH IN HIM - BUT SOMEONE ELSE.  WHO MAY THAT BE??

Clearly then, the use of the word "ad" in Isaiah 9:6 shows that Jesus is NOT from eternity.

IN WHOSE OPINION – MANS OR GODS? BIBLE CLEARLY STATES THAT HE IS - HE EVEN SAYS IT HIMSELF IN REVELATION MANY TIME - WHEN JESUS STATES THAT HE IS THE ALPHA & OMEGA - BEGINNING & THE  END - FIRST & THE LAST. HE SHOULD KNOW WHAT HE IS TALKING ABOUT - SHOULDN'T HE?

IN THE OLD TESTAMENT - PROPHETS ALWAYS USE THE WORDS "LORD SAID" I MA THE LIGHT!!  I AM THE JUDGE OF THE WORLD - THUS SAYS THE LORD ETC.

BUT JESUS USES THE WORDS = "I AM THE LIGHT"  == I AM THE THE JUDGE - I AM THIS - I AM THAT." CAN YOU SEE THE CONNECTION THERE?? WHO DO YOU BELIEVE JESUS OR MAN?

JESUS GAVE US MANY HINTS & CLUES AS TO WHO HE IS - BUT IT IS UP TO YOU & ME TO BELIEVE HIM OR DENY HIM. REMEMBER THAT HE WILL NOT DENY HIMSELF - 2 TIMOTHY 2: 11- 13.

Jesus himself said to his disciples at John 6:57: "Just as the living Father sent me  forth and I live because of the Father, he also that feeds on me, even that one will live because of me."

Notice Jesus here said "….I live BECAUSE of the Father…" The Greek word translated "because of " is "dia." Here, this word means "because of, agency, due to, denoting the channel of an act, by whose will."

LETS SEE WHAT THE KJV SAYS ON THIS SUBJECT & THEN WE WILL EXAMINE THE
WHOLE PASSAGE FROM VERSE 53-58

VERSE 53 -  "THEN JESUS SAID UNTO THE, VERILY, VERILY, I SAY UNTO YOU, EXCEPT YE EAT THE FLESH OF THE SON OF MAN, AND DRINK HIS BLOOD, YE HAVE NO LIFE IN YOU. 54WHO SO EATETH MY FLESH, HAD ETERNAL LIFE; AND I WILL RAISE HIM UP AT THE LAST DAY. 55 FOR MY FLESH IS MEAT INDEED, AND MY BLOOD IS DRINK INDEED. 56HE THAT EATETH MY FLESH, AND DRINKETH MY BLOOD, DWELETH IN ME AND I IN HIM,  57 AS THE LIVING FATHER HATH SENT ME,  AND I LIVE "BY" (because of)  THE FATHER: SO HE THAT  EATETH ME, EVEN HE SHALL LIVE "BY" (because of) ME. 58 THIS IS THAT BREAD THAT WHICH CAME DOWN FROM HEAVEN: NOT AS YOUR FATHERS DID EAT MANNA, AND ARE DEAD: HE THAT EATETH OF THIS BREAD SHALL LIVE FOR EVER.

PLEASE NOTE HOW THE KJV RENDERED THE WORD "DIA" THERE IS ANOTHER WAY TO
TRANSLATE THE WORD. BUT – LETS SEE WHAT THE ENTIRE PASSAGE IS TALKING
ABOUT & NIT JUST A PART OF IT.

HERE JESUS IS TALKING ABOUT WHAT "HIS BODY" WILL DO FOR US –

HE IS TELLING US THAT WE ARE TO EAT HIS BODY & DRINK HIS BLOOD SO TO ATTAIN "ETERNAL" SALVATION.

GOD (JESUS) IS TELLING US THAT HE HAS LIFE "IN" AND "OF" HIMSELF. JESUS AS OUR MEDIATOR LIVES BY HIS FATHER & HAS LIFE IN HIMSELF (SEE JOHN 5:26) –

SO JESUS IS TELLING US – THAT WHEN WE EAT HIS BODY & DRINK HIS BLOOD WE WILL HAVE LIFE BY HIM IN HEAVEN – OR SHOULD I PUT IT ANOTHER WAY –

"BECAUSE" OF HIS DEATH ON THE CROSS & OUR BELIEF IN HIM & OUR FAITH IN HIM WE SHALL BE WITH HIM IN HEAVEN. WHEN EVER WE PARTAKE IN "COMMUNION" WE PARTAKE IN HIS BODY & BLOOD

DO YOU PARTAKE IN THESE ELEMENTS? IF NOT WHY NOT?

JESUS TELLS THAT WE SHOULD DO THAT TO ATTAIN ETERNAL SALVATION = SO IF YOU DON'T DO IT WHY DON'T YOU BELIEVE HIM?

Jesus goes on to contrast the everlasting life that he receives, or is permitted to have from his Father (the source of HIS EVERLASTING LIFE) with the everlasting life that the disciples would receive from Jesus.

THAI IS NOT TRUE - JESUS DOES NOT NEED PERMISSION TO LIVE - HE HAS LIFE IN HIMSELF

So just as if it were not for Jesus, and the ransom he would offer, the disciples would not have everlasting life. So too, if it were not for the Father, Jesus would NOT have everlasting life. This is PLAINLY, and without objection, what Jesus said. Again Jesus contrasted The Father's giving him life, with his provision through the ransom to give the Disciples everlasting life.

THIS IS NOT TRUE - PLEASE RE READ THE PASSAGE AGAIN & YOU WILL SEE THAT JESUS HAS LIFE IN HIMSELF & HE DOES NOT NEED PERMISSION FROM ANYONE - ALSO - PLEASE READ MALACHI 3:1 & MATTHEW 3:3 IF YOU ARE USING NWT.

Clearly, one who owes his everlasting life to someone else is NOT from all Eternity, and without
beginning.

THIS IS HUMAN REASONING & READING "INTO" THINGS THAT AREN’T THERE. BIBLE NOWHERE TELLS US THAT JESUS WAS "CREATED" BY HIS FATHER. THIS IS MADE UP BY THOSE WHO DO NOT BELIEVE IN THE GODS WORD – BUT IN WHAT SOME MEN WHO EXALT THEMSELVES HAS TOLD THEM.

PLEASE BUY YOUR SELF A KJV STUDY BIBLE - NIV STUDY BIBLE OR ANY OTHER STUDY BIBLE APART FORM NWT - BUT IF YOU INSIST  ON USING NWT = WOULD YOU AT LEAST BUY YOUR SELF A KINGDOM INTERLINEAR OF GREEK & ENGLISH SCRIPTURES AS THIS WILL SHOE YOU SO MANY MISTRANSLATION OF NWT.

IN 2 TIMOTHY 2:12-13 WE READ (NIV) - "IF WE ENDURE, WE WILL ALSO REIGN WITH HIM. IF WE  DISOWN HIM" HE WILL ALSO "DISOWN US" 13 – IF WE ARE FAITHLESS, HE WILL REMAIN FAITHFUL, FOR "HE CAN NOT DISOWN HIMSELF" –

NOTE THAT JESUS WILL NOW "DISOWN HIMSELF"  - WE CAN TELL OTHERS THAT JESUS IS NOT GOD – BUT HE WILL NOT TAKE THAT GLORY FROM HIMSELF – SEE ALSO VERSE 15.

IN MATTHEW 10:33 WE READ  - " BUT WHOEVER DISOWNS ME BEFORE MEN, I WILL DISOWN HIM BEFORE MY FATHER IN HEAVEN".

DEFINITELY NOT A RIGHT THING TO DO – TO DENY JESUS HIS DUES!

"Listen! Someone is calling out in the wilderness: "Clear up the way of Jehovah, YOU people! MAKE the highway for our God through the desert plain straight."

Isaiah here is saying that the "way of Jehovah" needs to be made "clear" That a "highway," or "road" as some translations put it, would be forged, or made "straight" to restore the people back to Jehovah.

THIS IS REFERRING TO JOHN THE BAPTIST & WHAT HE HAD TO DO TO PREPARE A WAY FOR JESUS. IT WAS JOHN THE BAPTIST WHO HAD TO TURN JEWISH PEOPLE FROM THEIR WICKED WAY & TO COME TO THE MESSIAH.  NOT A HIGHWAY BUT TO TURN PEOPLE BACK TO GOD.

This verse is then quoted in Matthew 3:3; Mark 1:3; Luke 3:4 and John 1:23 where we read: "He said: "I am a voice of someone crying out in the wilderness, ‘MAKE the way of Jehovah straight,’ just as Isaiah the prophet said."

SEE I TOLD YOU THAT JOHN THE BAPTIST PREPARED THE WAY FOR JEHOVAH!! NWT AGREES WITH ME.

Isaiah 40:3 is here shown, as having another fulfilment in John the Baptist. The one who was used by Jehovah to prepare the nation of Israel for Jehovah's Messiah, namely Jesus, his only son.

NOTE HOW THE AUTHOR "INSERTS"  A WORD IN HIS DECEPTION TO OTHERS – THE AUTHOR STATES THAT THE JOHN THE BAPTIST IS TO PREPARE THE WAY FOR "Jehovah's   Messiah"

THIS IS NOT WHAT THE ORIGINAL PASSAGE STATES – IT READS AS SUCH "Prepare a way for the Lord" (NIV) NWT- says "Clear up the  way of Jehovah".

NOT JEHOVAH'S MESSIAH - BUT JEHOVAH HIMSELF OK!!

Big difference between the two passages – by "Inserting" words & meanings that aren’t there!  I wonder why he did that??

Yet some say that because Isaiah says to prepare the way of Jehovah, and John the Baptist prepared the way for Jesus, that Jesus is Jehovah. Is this the truth of the scripture? Did John the Baptist prepare the way for Jesus? Or Jehovah? We should ask our selves – what does the

WORD OF GOD SAY? NOT WHAT SOME LIKE TO MAKE IT READ.

HERE WE GO AGAIN FOLKS – MAKING THINGS UP THAT AREN’T IN THE WORD OF GOD PLEASE READ IT & THEN COMPARE IT TO WHAT THE BIBLE ACTUALLY STATES.

Well a simple reading of the text helps us to understand just whom John prepared the way for. In the initial fulfilment, the "road" of Jehovah was literally created in the wilderness that led the nation of Israel out of Babylonian captivity in the year 537 b.c.e. Yes this road led to their freedom out of enslavement. Was a "literal road" made in the wilderness in Jesus’ day? No!

IS ANY OF THIS MATERIAL IN THE ABOVE CITED PASSAGE?  No right - THIS IS WHAT I MEAN - BY MAKING THINGS UP THAT ARE NOT THERE.

In the spring of 29 C.E., John the Baptizer started his work as a "messenger," or a "forerunner" or Jesus. He was given the assignment "to prepare the way of Jehovah." Not that Jehovah would come literally, because Jehovah did not come literally in 537 b.c.e. did he? And neither would he come literally in the first century. Rather, John would prepare the nation of Israel for the judgement of Jehovah, by getting the Israelites ready for the coming of God’s Chief Representative, Jesus Christ.

Again  - IS THIS WHAT THE ABOVE PASSAGE STATES OR IS IT "MADE UP" SO TO SUITE THE AUTHORS MEANING & NOT WHAT GOD SAID? REVELATION 22:18-19 WARNS US AGAINST ADDING TO GODS WORD - SO PLEASE WOULD YOU ASK THE HOLY SPIRIT TO HELP YOU WITH HIS WORD?

Remember who John the Baptist understood Jesus to be. Did John say that Jesus WAS Jehovah? Lets see at John 1:33,34:
"Even I did not know him, but the very One who sent me to baptize in water said to me, ‘Whoever it is upon whom you see the spirit coming down and remaining, this is the one that baptizes in holy spirit.’ And I have seen [it], and I have borne witness
that this one is the Son of God."

So then, whom did John understand Jesus to be? "The Son "of" God," not Jehovah himself!

WE HAVE COVERED IN THE GENESIS SECTION – WHO JEHOVAH IS – SO AGAIN I ASK YOU – IS THIS WHAT THE PASSAGE MEANS FROM ABOVE?  YES JESUS IS THE SON OF GOD – WHICH MAKES HIM GOD. OTHERWISE HE WOULD BE SOME OTHER CREATURE.

PLEASE READ MALACHI 3:1 - JOHN 1:3 & GENESIS 1 & 2:7

Also, Jesus own words at John 5:43: "I have come in the name of my Father, but YOU do not receive me; if someone else arrived in his own name, YOU would receive that one."

Jesus did NOT come in his own name. If Jesus WERE Jehovah, he most certainly would HAVE
been spoken of, as coming in "His Own Name."

This passage is not relevant to the subject at hand -  AS JESUS WAS REBUKING JEWS FOR NOT BELIEVING IN HIM & WHO HE WAS –   IN VERSE 42 – JESUS TELLS THEM – THAT " THEY HAVE NO LOVE FOR GOD IN THEM" SAME APPLIES TO THE AUTHOR OF THIS PASSAGE. IF THE AUTHOR HAD LOVE OR GOD  - HE WOULD NOT DENY JESUS HIS GLORY.

SECOND - WHEN MY FATHER SENDS ME TO REPRESENT HIM IN HIS BUSINESS DEALINGS - THEN HE SENDS ME IN HIS NAME & I GO & REPRESENT HIM IN HIS NAME.

THAT IN NO WAY MAKES ME ANY LESS HUMAN BEING THEN HIM - OR DOES IT??

John 5:36: "But I have the witness greater than that of John, for the very works that my Father assigned me to accomplish, the works themselves that I am doing, bear witness about me that the Father dispatched me."

Jesus here said that he was dispatched by his Father to do his Father's "works." Again, if Jesus WERE Jehovah, Jesus most certainly would do his own works.

I WILL JUMP IN HERE AGAIN- JESUS CAM TO FULFIL WHAT WAS WRITTEN ABOUT HIM BY THE PROPHETS & OT  WRITERS & NOT TO GLORIFY HIMSELF. MATTHEW 5:17-18.

SECOND - JESUS DID DO HIS OWN WORKS - NO ONE HAS SEEN NOR HEARD THE FATHER & IN MALACHI 3:1 & ZAC. 12: 10 IT CLEARLY STATES THAT IT WAS YAHWEH WHO IS COMING.

ALSO –   JESUS WAS SAYING THAT AS HE IS THE SOLE JUDGE & JURY – WE SHOULD HAVE FAITH IN HIM & NO ONE ELSE – JOHN 5:22-23

John 6:14: "Hence when the men saw the signs he performed, they began to say: "This is for a certainty the prophet that was to come into the world."

Yes, John the Baptizer prepared the "people" of Israel for Jehovah, by getting them ready for Jehovah's chief prophet, Jesus.

NOT TRUE - JOHN PREPARED THE WAY FOR YAHWEH!! WHICH IS JESUS!!

This was prophesied in Deuteronomy 18:18 where we read: "A prophet I shall raise up for them from the midst of their brothers, like you; and I shall indeed put my words in his mouth, and he will certainly speak to them all that I shall command him."

Yes, Jesus was God’s Prophet. God is not a prophet. For Jehovah is the one who "puts his words" in the mouth of that one, and then "commands" him to speak them.

THE AUTHOR KEEPS FORGETTING THAT GOD IS A SPIRIT & FOR A SPIRIT TO COMMUNICATE WITH A HUMAN FLESH – THEN GOD "MUST" BECAME FLESH – MAN CAN NOT ATONE FOR ANOTHER MANS SINS – ONLY GOD CAN DO THAT.

YES JESUS WAS A PROPHET & HE FULFILLED "ALL" THAT WAS WRITTEN ABOUT HIM IN THE OT. GOD LITERALLY BECAME A MAN & SHED HIS "SINLESS" BLOOD FOR ATONEMENT OF HIS CREATIONS. (Philippians 2:5-6 John 1:1-3 - TITUS 2:13)

"YOU are my witnesses," is the utterance of Jehovah, "even my servant whom I have chosen, in order that YOU may know and have faith in me, and that YOU may understand that I am the same One. Before me there was no God formed, and after me there continued to be none."

THIS STATEMENT PROVES THAT THERE CAN NOT BE A ALMIGHTY GOD & MIGHTY GOD & GOD & 'a god', BUT ONLY ONE OF THEM.

LETS SEE WHAT THE VERSES 11 - 13 SAY ALSO FROM NIV:

"I, EVEN I AM THE LORD AND APART FROM ME THERE THERE IS NO SAVIOUR. 12 I HAVE REVEALED AND SAVED AND PROCLAIMED - I, AND NOT SOME FOREIGN god AMONG YOU , YOU ARE MY WITNESS, DECLARES THE LORD, THAT I AM GOD. 13 YES, AND FROM ANCIENT DAYS I AM HE. NO ONE CAN DELIVER OUT OF MY HAND. WHEN I ACT, WHO CAN REVERS IT.

PLEASE NOTE VERY CAREFULLY THAT GOD STATES VERY CLEARLY THAT THERE IS NO OTHER GOD APART FORM HIM - THERE IS NO ALMIGHTY - MIGHTY - GOD &  a god.  HE IS ONE & THE SAME HE DOES NOT RECOGNIZE ANY OTHER!

SO HOW COME THAT HUMAN BEINGS KEEP TELLING HIM THAT HE DOESN'T KNOW WHAT HE IS TALKING ABOUT WHEN HE SAYS THAT THERE IS NO OTHER GOD??

WHO DO YOU BELIEVE GOD OR SOME MEN WHO DO NOT KNOW THE WORD OF GOD??

IN PROVERBS 19: 1-25 WE READ:

"BETTER A POOR MAN WHOSE WALK IS BLAMELESS THAN A FOOL WHOSE LIPS ARE PERVERSE. 2 IT IS NOT GOOD TO HAVE ZEAL WITHOUT KNOWLEDGE, NOR TO BE HASTY AND MISS THE WAY. 3 A MANS OWN FOLLY RUINS HIS LIFE, YET HIS HEART RAGES AGAINST THE LORD {JEHOVAH} 5 A FALSE WITNESS WILL NOT GO UNPUNISHED, AND HE WHO POURS OUT LIES WILL NOT GO FREE. 8 HE WHO GETS WISDOM LOVES HIS OWN SOUL; HE WHO CHERISHES UNDERSTANDING PROSPERS. 21 MANY ARE PLANS IN A MANS HEART, BUT IT IS THE LORD'S PURPOSE THAT PREVAILS. 25b REBUKE A DISCERNING MAN, AND HE WILL GAIN KNOWLEDGE"

WHO DO YOU FOLLOW - MAN OR GOD? WHO DO YOU BELIEVE GOD OR MAN??

Some believe this verse proves Jesus is indeed God. Is this the case? YES HE IS - BUT WE MUST GO ON! Let's see.

The reasoning some trinitarians use on this verse normally goes something like this:

"Isaiah here reports that there was NO God formed before Jehovah and NO God formed after Jehovah.  {THAT'S WHAT BIBLE STATES & WE JUST POINT IT OUT!}  But, some teach that according to the Bible at John 1:1, Jesus
is "a god."

THAT IS WHAT WATCH TOWER & THEIR OWN BIBLE STATES - SO WHO IS THE SOME ONE?? HMMMM

Now if the Bible says there was no God formed AFTER Jehovah, and Jesus is "a god,"
then Jesus must be a FALSE God."

THERE IS NO "IF" ABOUT IT! BIBLE "DOES" SAY THAT THERE IS NO OTHER GOD = BUT MAN ALTERS GODS WORDS SO TO MAKE IT SUITE HIS OWN TEACHING.

Some also say that Jehovah here uses the words "ego eimi" as a title. Jesus also uses these words at John 13:19, thus Jesus is Jehovah. That discussion will not be handled here under this subheading, but can be found on the John page under the
heading John 13:19

I WILL SAY THIS ONLY FOR TIME BEING - IN THE OT PROPHETS WOULD SAY = THUS SAID THE LORD - BUT JESUS ALWAYS SAID "I AM" - NOT THUS SAID THE LORD - BUT I AM

THIS IS DONE SO – TO TAKE THE READER AWAY FROM WHAT IS WRITTEN & THEN  HOPE THAT THE READER CAN NOT REMEMBER THE PASSAGE – BUT WE WILL COMEBACK TO IT LATER.  JUST SEE IT FOR WHAT IT REALLY IS – THERE CAN NOT BE MORE THEN "ONE" GOD- For God is **ONE** Deutronomy 6: 4

Thus, this verse involves the text at John 1:1 that we will go into later as well.

Well is this line of reasoning sound? Does it reflect an accurate understanding of the "kind of god" Jesus is described as being, when analyzing the original Greek text of John 1:1?

HERE WE GO CHANGING FROM "HEBREW" MANUSCRIPTS TO "GREEK" MANUSCRIPTS SO TO DECEIVE THE UNVARYING. JESUS WAS A JEW - SO WAS HE TO USE GREEK WORDS WHEN SPEAKING TO HIS JEWISH PEOPLE?  DO YOU THINK THAT THEY WOULD HAVE UNDERSTOOD HIM IF HE SPOKE IN GREEK??  OF COURSE NOT!!  HE SPOKE IN HIS NATIVE LANGUAGE & WHEN THESE WORDS ARE TRANSLATED INTO GREEK MANUSCRIPTS THEY ARE RENDERED AS "EGO EIMI" & HENS THEY READ "I AM " IN ENGLISH. -- SAME MEANING - JUST A DIFFERENT LANGUAGE THAT'S ALL.

First, let's deal with the context of the majority of the previous chapters of Isaiah leading up to, and well past the 43 chapter of Isaiah. Upon a close study, we find that these chapters are dealing primarily with the false idol gods the nation of Israel was getting involved with, verses the one True God of Israel, namely Jehovah. Notice that Jehovah says: "….before me there was no God formed, and after me there continued to be none [formed] "

NOTE THE UNDERLINED WORDS - "AFTER ME THERE CONTINUED TO BE "NONE" FORMED."

LEST FACE UP TO THE FACTS - JEHOVAH TELLS US THAT THERE WAS NO MIGHTY GOD - GOD - or a god FORMED AFTER HIM.

SO WHO CAN JESUS BE??  HE CAN NOT BE ANY OTHER THEN THE ONE & ONLY GOD THAT HE SAYS THAT HE IS IN ISAIAH PASSAGE..

THEREFORE JESUS CAN NOT BE ‘MIGHT GOD" OR  "a god"  COULD HE?  NO HE COULD NOT BE.

So it is not surprising that Jehovah would make a statement as he did at Isaiah 43:10. Even calling  the nation of Israel "witnesses" to his Godship. They witnessed marvellous acts of Jehovah on behalf of his people. Let's look at Isaiah 43 verses 2,3 of the same chapter: "In case you should pass through the waters, I will be with you; and through the rivers, they will not flood over you. In case you should walk through the fire, you will not be scorched, neither will the flame itself singe you. For I am Jehovah your God, the Holy One of Israel your Saviour. I have given Egypt as a ransom for you, E·thi·o'pi·a and Se'ba in place of you."

BUT WHAT DOES THIS HAVE TO DO WITH THE SUBJECT AT HAND?  NOTHING – EXCEPT TO TAKE THE READER AWAY FROM WHAT IS BEING TALKED ABOUT & HOPE THAT ALL IS FORGOTTEN.

TAKE A LOOK AT THE UNDERLINED WORDS AGAIN - JEHOVAH IS THE SAVIOUR - HE SAYS IT HIMSELF -

IN LUKE 2:11 WE READ THAT: "OF DAVID A SAVIOUR HAS BEEN BORN TO YOU".

IN JOHN 4: 42 WE READ: "KNOW THAT THIS MAN REALLY IS A SAVIOUR.." ETC ETC.

BOTH PASSAGES TALK ABOUT JESUS - DOES THE BIBLE SAY ANYWHERE IN THAT THERE WILL BE TWO SAVIOURS WHO WILL REDEEM US FROM OUR SINS??  I CAN NOT FIND ANY - HOW ABOUT YOU?

Yes, from Jehovah's standpoint, all the dungy idols of the pagan nations that were surrounding Israel and being brought into the pure worship of Jehovah were something detestable to him. He consistently reminded his people to "make no graven images" before him. The gods of the nation's time after time proved powerless as compared to Jehovah's awesome demonstrations of the miraculous protection he showed to his people. Yet, Israel continued to be involved in false worship by means of making and worshipping idols.

AGAIN – NOTHING TO DO WITH THE SUBJECT AT HAND – BUT CONFUSION – TO TAKE THE READER AWAY FROM WHAT IS BEING DISCUSSED.

TO THE RELEVANCE THOUGH - WHO DO YOU FOLLOW A MAN MAD ORGANIZATION OR GOD HIM SELF?  DO YOU HAVE FREEDOM IN CHRIST OR BONDAGE TO AN ORGANIZATION & MAN MAD RULES THAT CHANGE AT THE WHIM OF A PEN STROKE??  CURIOUS HERE??  PLEAS READ JOHN 8:35 -36 & 51- THEN SEE VERSES 31-31 THEN VERSE 24 & THEN VERSE 12.

THEN PLEASE TURN TO GALATIANS 3: 26 - 29 & TELL ME IF YOU ARE IN THAT CLASS??

With this having been said, how is it that ANY god could be formed before or after Jehovah? The fact is, there could NOT be any god formed before or after Jehovah because the gods being mentioned and spoken about that the nation of Israel could identify with were FALSE IDOL GODS! Yes, the "context" is dealing with the False Idols the nation of Israel had been involved with! Lets see proof of this.

THEN THIS REASONING MAKES JESUS A "FALSE GOD" AS HE IS "MIGHTY GOD" OR IS THAT ‘a god"!! THERE CAN NOT BE BOTH WAYS - BUT ONLY ONE WAY.

The following has nothing to do with the subject at hand – but we are leaving it in – so that you can see for your self how the try's so hard to take the reader away from the subject at hand..

Isaiah 40:18 reads: "And to whom can YOU people liken God, and what likeness can YOU put alongside him? The craftsman has cast a mere molten image, and with gold the metalworker overlays it, and silver chains he is forging. A certain tree as a
contribution, a tree that is not rotten, he chooses. A skilful craftsman he searches out for himself, to prepare a carved image that may not be made to totter."

Isaiah 40:25 reads: "But to whom can YOU people liken me so that I should be made his equal?" says the Holy One."

Isaiah 41:28 reads: "And I kept seeing, and there was not a man; and out of these there was also no one that was giving counsel. And I kept asking them, that they might make a reply. Look! All of them are something nonexistent. Their works are nothing. Their molten images are wind and unreality."

Isaiah 42:17 reads: "They must be turned back, they will be very much ashamed, those who are putting trust in the carved image, those who are saying to a molten image: "YOU are our gods."

Isaiah 44:8,9,10 reads: "Do not be in dread, YOU people, and do not become stupefied. Have I not from that time on caused you individually to hear and told [it] out? And YOU are my witnesses. Does there exist a God besides me? No, there is no Rock. I have recognized none.’" "The formers of the carved image are all of them an unreality, and their darlings themselves will be of no benefit; and as their witnesses they see nothing and know nothing, in order that they may be ashamed. Who has formed a god or cast a mere molten image? Of no benefit at all has it been."

Isaiah 44:15,16,17 reads: "And it has become [something] for man to keep a fire burning. So he takes part of it that he may warm himself. In fact he builds a fire and actually bakes bread. He also works on a god to which he may bow down. He has made it into a carved image, and he prostrates himself to it. Half of it he actually burns up in a fire. Upon half of it he roasts well the flesh that he eats, and he becomes satisfied. He also warms himself and says: "Aha! I have warmed myself. I have seen the firelight." But the remainder of it he actually makes into a god itself, into his carved image. He prostrates himself to it and bows down and prays to it and says: "Deliver me, for you are my god."

Thus we can see that the gods Jehovah is being compared to, are IDOLS formed or made by man and worshipped instead of Jehovah. Therefore NO God (that is, an idol made or formed by man [not true]) was formed BEFORE Jehovah THAT WAS REAL or ALIVE or ABLE to deliver them, and after Jehovah there continued to be none! For they never existed! [AND TO THIS DAY THEY DO NOT EXIST!] Yes, the nation of Israel made idols, but they were stone, or wood, and NOT alive or REAL or able to provide any salvation for them ever! Thus how foolish the nation was when they had a God like Jehovah to
protect them.

SO WHO IS JESUS?  AS HOLY SPIRIT IMPREGNATED MARY & HE BECAME A HUMAN. HE MUST BE FALSE – HEY!!

Secondly.

Is Jesus indeed a false god if there is no God formed after Jehovah? Well, as can be seen from the above, the context clearly rules this line of reasoning out.

PLEASE FOLKS – LEST BE KIND HERE – BUT HOW CAN THE AUTHOR COME UP WITH THIS STATEMENT – AFTER TELLING US THAT THERE IS "NO" OTHER GOD BESIDE JEHOVAH – SO WHO OR WHAT IS JESUS THEN?

AS HE WAS FORMED AFTER THESE PASSAGE WERE WRITTEN!

But the fact does remain, that Jesus is indeed called "a god" at John 1:1. So does this qualify Jesus to be considered a False God because there are No Gods formed AFTER Jehovah?

ACCORDING TO GOD'S OWN WORDS - THE ANSWER IS YES - OTHERWISE GOD IS TELLING US A ONE BIG LIE!!

Well, the answer is simply no, but lets peruse this line of thinking and prove it from the Bible.

To say that because Jesus is called "a god" at John 1:1, and that this then means that Jesus is one of many gods, reveals a lack of serious study into the Greek text at John 1:1.

John 1:1 reads: "In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god."

BEFORE I FORGET   – PLEASE GO TO WT'S OWN INTERLINEAR & SEE HOW THEY RENDERED THE SAME WORD IN MARK 12: 26-27-

There are two different appearances of the word "theos" in John 1:1. The first usage of theos, (which is spelled in the accusative case endings) is preceded by a definite article. We read:

                         "kai ho logos en pros ton theon"

     (kai=and, ho=the, logos=Word, en=was, pros=with, (toward) ton=the, theon=God)

  Here we see that Jesus was in the beginning ("not from eternity," "Joseph Henry Thayer") with the God."

AGAIN I WOULD LIKE TO ASK YOU TO READ GENESIS ONE WHICH SAYS THAT IN THE BEGINNING  GOD CREATED = NOW WHERE DOES IT SAY THAT GOD CREATED HIMSELF.  JESUS IS THE CREATOR OF EVERYTHING & JOHN 1:3  IT SAYS THAT IT IS JESUS WHO CREATED EVERYTHING.

HERE IS THAT LINE AGAIN & I WOULD LIKE YOU TO PLACE JESUS ON IT.

(1) -SO IF YOU DO THIS ------x----------------- THEN YOU HAVE TO CUT THE BLUE BIT OF AS IT IS BEFORE THE BEGGING - OK.

(2) -IF YOU DO THIS     x-------------------------> THEN YOU ARE OK AS THAT REPRESENTS THE BEGINNING & THERE IS NOTHING BEFORE IT.

NOT BEING SMART HERE - JUST POINTING OUT THE MEANING OF THE  BEGINNING OF SOMETHING. I DID THIS AS I HAVE HAVE HAD FEW PEOPLE TRY TO TELL ME THAT EXAMPLE IS IS TRUE!!

          John then tells us something else about the Word. John goes on to say:

                            "kai theos en ho logos"

                (kai=and, theos=a god, en=was, ho=the, logos=Word)

The predicate noun of the clause is "theos" or "a god." The verb is "en" or was. The subject of the sentence in John 1:1c is "ho Logos" or the Word.

NOW AS I MENTIONED ABOVE – IN MARKS PASSAGE 12:26-27 EXACTLY THE SAME WORDS = " KAI THEOS"  ARE USED WHERE JESUS IS SAYING  THAT "GOD" IS NOT GOD OF THE DEAD, BUT THAT HE IS == "I AM THE GOD OF ABRAHAM, AND THE GOD OF ISAAC AND THE GOD OF JACOB" ==

ALL OF A SUDDEN THE WORDS "KAI THEOS" BECAME "THE GOD" & NOT "a god’

IT CAN ONLY BE ONE & NOT BOTH WAYS - ESPECIALLY AS IT IS USED OF THE SAME PERSON.

Wouldn't you say that this is strange to say the least?  I do. The reason that they could not render the words in Mark as "a god" – is – because the words here refer back to OT writings & in John's passage it is NT writings so they change it to suite their own teachings.

ALSO REFER TO THE SUBJECT "WHICH BIBLE" ON THIS WEB PAGE FOR FURTHER EXPLANATION AS TO HOW THEY CAM UP WITH THIS INTERPRETATION.

Is John here telling us that Jesus is one of many gods? Lets look a bit closer at John 1:1.

WHAT ELSE CAN IT BE – JESUS IS SOMEHOW BEEN MADE LOWER THEN THE "MIGHTY GOD" THAT ISAIAH 9:6 IS TALKING ABOUT. ALL OF A SUDDEN HE IS ON THE SAME LEVEL AS THE DEVIL. PLEASE THINK HARD ABOUT THIS.

A noun is a word that denotes a person, place, thing, or quality. A definite article such as "the," identifies a specific person place or thing.

SO HOW COME IT IS NOT THE SAME RULE IN THE OT?  THINK FOLKS – THINK - WHEN WE APPLY THIS RULE IN OT WRITINGS THEN THE SAME RULES APPLY IN THE NT.

An indefinite article like "a" or "an" tells us to which group or division a particular thing belongs to. Indefinite articles also can be used to indicate the qualities of a person, place or thing.

THE SAME PRINCIPLES "MUST" APPLY IN THE OT.

Jesus, the Word, at John 1:1c, is said to be "theos." The word "theos" literally means "god, deity, divine, godlike."

PEOPLE THERE IS NO OTHER GODS BUT THE ALMIGHTY & NOW JESUS SOMETHING ELSE - THAT IS NOT DEITY OR DIVINE - BUT SOMEHOW LOWER IN NATURE THEN HIS FATHER. BY THE AUTHORS OWN DEFINITION OF THE WORD - JESUS IS DIVINE - GOD LIKE. UNLESS YOU SAY THAT HE IS NOT DIVINE & HE IS JUST LIKE THE DEVIL!!  THE CHOICE IS YOURS.

In the first instance of "theos," Jesus is said to be with "THE GOD." This first instance of "theos" HAS the definite article "ton" (the) before it. This shows that the Word was specifically with (or toward) "THE" God. The definite article in the Greek clothes this "theos" with identity.

THEN THE SAME PRINCIPLE "MUST" APPLY TO MARK 12:26

The second instance of "theos" LACKS the definite article. There is NO "indefinite" article used in the Greek language. However in English, an "indefinite" article IS used. Thus, when translating the Bible into other languages that include an indefinite article, the translation needs to reflect the full flavour of the original language so that the translation is as close to the original in its meaning.

NOTE THE HIGHLIGHTED WORDS - REFLECT THE "FULL" FLAVOUR OF THE "ORIGINAL "SO THAT IT IS AS CLOSE TO THE ORIGINAL MEANING.

DID PAUL - PETER - JOHN & THE Co. GO AROUND TELLING PEOPLE THAT JESUS WAS ON THE SAME LEVEL AS THE  GOD OR "a god" ???? It wasn't "a god" that's for sure!!

A side point here for a moment is, that some say "because there is no  indefinite article in the Greek at John 1:1, you cannot use an indefinite article in the English at John 1:1."

This statement simply is not true. For if this is indeed the case, then why does every major translation us an "a" as they translate John 4:19 as "..a prophet," or John 8:44 as "....a murderer," or John 10:1 as "..a thief," or John 10:33 as "..a man," when the
original text contains NO "indefinite" article in the original Greek?

NOW THE AUTHOR IS  REALLY CONFUSING THE ISSUE – BY CHANGING THE SUBJECT MATTER AGAIN. HEY FOLKS LETS GO FOR A WALK FOR A MINUTE & THEN WE WILL COME BACK TO IT LATER. SHORT BREAK HERE -- AHHHH ==  THAT IS BETTER   DID YOU ENJOY "THE" BREAK OR IS THAT "A" BREAK??

EVERY MAJOR RECOGNIZED BIBLE RENDERS JOHN 1:1 AS "THE GOD" - ONLY FEW VERSIONS OF WHICH NWT IS ONE, RENDER IT " a god"   - THIS IS DONE SO TO DENY THE MEANING OF THE TRUTH & TO SUBSTANTIATE THEIR OWN TEACHING.

WHEN APPLYING GRAMMATICAL RULES - TO LANGUAGE TRANSLATION THEN  THE SAME RULE APPLIES ACROSS THE BOARD & NOT AS WE PLEASE.

THE INFERENCE IS NOT SO MUCH ON THE  "A" OR ON "THE" - BEFORE THE WORD THEOS -  BUT ON HOW THE WORD THEOS IS RENDERED IN TO ENGLISH TEXT WHEN WE REFER TO GOD OR MAN made gods.   IF NWT SAID "A GOD" THERE WOULDN'T  BE SO MUCH A / THE PROBLEM - BUT THEY REDUCE THE STATUS OF JESUS BY RENDERING IT AS "god" -  THAT IS THE ISSUE HERE & NOT "A" OR "THE"

JUST LIKE MY "A BREAK" FROM TYPING & "THE" BREAK FOR TYPING - IT IS THE SAME BREAK -

EVEN THOUGH, THE CORRECT RENDERING IS "THE" GOD. JUST LIKE SAYING MY WIFE IS "THE" MOTHER OF OUR CHILDREN - SHE IS NOT "A" MOTHER OF OUR CHILDREN, AS ANY WOMEN COULD BE "A" MOTHER OF MY CHILDREN, BUT MY WIFE IS "THE" MOTHER" OF MY CHILDREN.

SAME APPLIES TO JESUS - HE IS "THE"  SON OF GOD - HENCE HE IS GOD.

WE IN TURN BECAME ADOPTED SONS OF GOD WHEN WE BECAME BORN AGAIN OF THE SPIRIT - JOHN 3:3-7 - 1 JOHN 5:1 - GALATIANS 4:5-7 & ROMANS 8: 1-16

They do so, because they realize that the construction of these nouns are qualitative and need an indefinite article when translated into the English to fully appreciate their meaning. However, due to a "biased theological mindset," these same translators failed to do so at John 1:1.

OH COME ON - WHICH BIBLE VERSION DENIES THE DEITY OF JESUS - NWT OR NIV - THE LIVING BIBLE - KJV - NRSV ETC?? - THE LAST 4 SAY THAT JESUS IS THE GOD & NWT SAYS THAT JESUS IS ON THE SAME LEVEL AS THE DEVIL - LETS GET REAL HERE!!

Let us resume our discussion.

Thus "theos" at John 1:1c is what is called an "anarthrous (without the definite article) predicate (of having the nature of) noun (quality)." It is qualitative in that it tells us something about the subject, NOT who the subject (the Word) WAS. Rather, it reveals a quality about Jesus. Yes, John here is telling us that Jesus was "a god," meaning that he was a "godlike or divine"
individual! OR that Jesus simply was divine! ("and NOT the divine being himself" "Joseph Henry Thayer")

COME ON LETS BE REAL HERE – HOW CAN HE BE DIVINE & THEN "NOT" DIVINE BEING – SOMETHING IS FISHY HERE WOULDN'T YOU SAY.

THAT’S LIKE SAYING – YES THAT IS A BABY – BUT IT IS NOT HUMAN. IT IS A DOG – COME ON = THINK FOLKS – THINK PLEASE.

HOW ARE WE TO "QUALIFY" THE NOUN - WHICH IS "THEOS" HERE ??  THINK ABOUT IT - I DON'T THINK THAT IT IS NECESSARY TO GO IN TO IT ANY DEEPER THEN THAT!

HOW IN THE THE WORLD CAN YOU BE A GODLIKE OR DIVINE & THEN "NOT" BE A divine being?

ONE  IS OR HE ISN'T??

John is NOT telling us that "Jesus is one of many gods."

SO TRUE – JOHN IS NOT TELLING US THAT – THE AUTHOR OF THIS ARTICLE IS.

For a parallel sentence construction to John 1:1c please see John 6:70: "Jesus answered them: "I chose YOU twelve, did I not? Yet one of YOU is a slanderer (devil)."

                      Here the Greek to English literally reads: "……..and of you, one devil (diabolos) is."

Here we see that Jesus was speaking of Judas Iscariot. He referred to Judas as "diabolos." This word literally means "devil,
murderer, man slayer, slander." Was Jesus saying that Judas Iscariot was literally Satan THE Devil? NO! Was he one of many devils? NO! But rather he had the qualities of the devil, in that he was a devil like individual due to his mind set.

THIS PASSAGE IS TALKING ABOUT THE DEVIL - BUT NOTE THE UNDERLINED WORDS AGAIN. ONE MINUTE THE AUTHOR IS SAYING THAT JUDAS IS NOT THE DEVIL - THEN HE IS "DEVIL LIKE."

WHICH ONE IS HE - DEVIL LIKE OR NOT??

WHAT JESUS WAS SAYING IS THIS:  JUDAS {WHICH WE KNOW IN HINDSIGHT} WAS THE ONE WHO OPPOSED CHRIST IN THE SPIRIT OF SATAN.

ANYONE WHO IS NOT FOR CHRIST IS AGAINST HIM. THIS ONE IS OF THE DEVIL. STRONG WORDS HEY -  BUT JESUS TELLS US IN LUKE 11: 23 " HE WHO IS NOT WITH ME IS AGAINST ME, AND HE WHO DOES NOT GATHER WITH ME SCATTERS"

THAT IS WHAT JESUS IS SAYING - ANYONE WHO BETRAYS HIM IS OF THE DEVIL - ANY ONE WHO DENIES HIM HIS DEITY  IS AGAINST HIM. ARE YOU THAT ONE??

More on John 1:1 in the John section.

FINALLY WE ARE BACK IN ISAIAH - THE SUBJECT WE STARTED OUT ON -

So at Isaiah 43:10, Jehovah is contrasting himself with Idols made by the nations and Israel. To say that Jesus is a false god because there is no God Formed AFTER Jehovah does not hold any Biblical water.

FOLKS YOU MAKE UP YOUR OWN MIND ON THIS LOGIC – BUT IT IS ALL DECEIVING & LIES ==  ANYONE WHO IS NOT WITH JESUS IS AGAINST HIM LUKE 11:23

- Because, as we proved, John 1:1 does NOT say Jesus is one of many Gods, but rather Jesus  was a godlike or divine
individual.

All OF A SUDDEN JESUS IS A DIVINE INDIVIDUAL – PLEASE GO BACK FEW PARAGRAPHS WHERE THE AUTHOR STATES THAT JESUS IS NOT A DIVINE INDIVIDUAL.  HE CAN NOT HAVE IT BOTH WAYS

And the Gods formed after Jehovah are the nonexistent, not alive, wooden images.

So WHO THEN IS JESUS – AS HE IS " a god, Mighty God"?? He can not have it both ways! – Or can he?

"I—I am Jehovah, and besides me there is no savior." Some say this verse proves that Jesus is Jehovah because Jehovah is
the only savior. Yet at  places like Titus 3:6 which reads: "This [spirit] he poured out richly upon us through Jesus Christ our Saviour."

WHAT ABOUT TITUS 3:4-5 "BUT WHEN THE KINDNESS AND LOVE OF GOD OUR SAVIOUR APPEARED 5 HE SAVED US, NOT BECAUSE OF RIGHTEOUS THINGS WE HAD DONE, BUT BECAUSE OF HIS MERCY. HE SAVED US THROUGH THE WASHING OF REBIRTH AND RENEWAL BY THE HOLY SPIRIT."

NOTE THAT GOD OUR SAVIOUR APPEARED!!

What about john 14:6 – where Jesus states "I AM THE WAY, THE TRUTH, & THE LIFE: NO MAN COMES TO THE FATHER BUT BY ME"

IF JESUS IS NOT THE SAVIOUR THEN HE IS A LIAR IN THIS PASSAGE.

WHO DO YOU BELIEVE = JESUS OR MAN??

Trinitarians argue that because Jesus is spoken of as being "our Saviour," Jesus must be Jehovah because Jehovah is the only savior. Is this sound Biblical thinking? Let's reason on this.

THIS AUTHOR CONTINUOUSLY CHANGES THE FOCUS ONTO THE TRINITARIANS & NOT WHAT THE BIBLE
STATES AGAIN & AGAIN.

LETS FACE THE TRUTH - THE GODS WORD  IS CONTINUALLY TELLING US THAT JESUS IS GOD - BUT THIS AUTHOR IS SAYING THAT GOD DOESN'T KNOW WHAT HE IS TALKING ABOUT SO HE HAS TO STRAIGHTEN HIM OUT.

WE ARE DISCUSSING ISAIAH PASSAGE - & AGAIN WE HAVE TO GO SOME WHERE ELSE OVER & OVER AGAIN - GRRR

Nehemiah 9:27 reads: "For this you gave them into the hand of their adversaries, who kept causing them distress; but in the time of their distress they would cry out to you, and you yourself would hear from the very heavens; and in accord with your abundant mercy you would give them saviors who would save them out of the hand of their adversaries."

THIS PASSAGE HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH THE SUBJECT AT HAND  BUT TO CONFUSE AGAIN –

THIS PASSAGES DEALS WITH THE JUDGES 2:6 & 3:6 WHERE ISRAELIS LIVING IN THE FIRST CENTURIES  IN THE PROMISED LAND ARE A RECURRING CYCLE OF APOSTASY, OPPRESSION, CRIES ETC. PLEASE READ THE INTRODUCTION SECTION IN YOUR BIBLE ON JUDGES

YOU KNOW I CAN SAY THAT DOG SAVED MY CHILD FROM HER ATTACKERS - WOULD THAT MAKE THE DOG - GOD??

NOT AT ALL - ALL THAT DOG IS IS SAVIOUR OF MY DAUGHTER FROM PHYSICAL HARM.

JUST BECAUSE THE WORD SAVIOUR IS USED IT DOESN'T MAKE DOG ANYTHING BUT DOG.

WHAT OTHER WORD COULD I USE TO SAY THAT DOG "SAVED" MY DAUGHTER?  THERE IS REALLY NO OTHER WORD THAT GIVES US THE SAME MEANING AS THE WORD SAVE - SO I USED IT. SAME APPLIES TO THIS PASSAGE.

Here Jehovah is spoken of as giving the nation "saviors." Who were these "saviors"?

1 Samuel 23:4,5: "So David inquired yet again of Jehovah. Jehovah now answered him and said: "Rise up, go down to Kei'lah, because I am giving the Phi·lis'tines into your hand." Accordingly David went with his men to Kei'lah and fought against the Phi·lis'tines and drove off with their livestock, but struck them down with a great slaughter; and David came to be the savior of the inhabitants of Kei'lah."

Judges 3:9,15: "And the sons of Israel began to call to Jehovah for aid. Then Jehovah raised a savior up for the sons of Israel that he might save them, Oth'ni·el the son of Ke'naz, the younger brother of Ca'leb. And the sons of Israel began to call to Jehovah for aid. So Jehovah raised up for them a savior, E'hud the son of Ge'ra, a Ben'ja·mite, a left-handed man. In time the sons of Israel sent tribute by his hand to Eg'lon the king of Mo'ab."

So here we see that Jehovah, though he was the author of the salvation of his people, appointed individuals like "David, Othniel, and Ehud to actually be the ones to bring about the salvation of Israel. This is also shown in Acts 13:47 where we read: "In
fact, Jehovah has laid commandment upon us in these words, ‘I have appointed you as a light of nations, for you to be a
salvation to the extremity of the earth.’"

AS I SAID – NOTHING TO DO WITH THE ABOVE SUBJECT – IT’S ONLY DONE TO IMPRESS UNWARY READER.

GOD SENT THE DOG TO PROTECT MY DAUGHTER IN MY EXAMPLE ABOVE - DOES THAT MAKE THE DOG ANYTHING LESS BUT DOG?  NO RIGHT!! JUST AS THE KIDS & SAVIOURS OF THE ABOVE PASSAGES WERE SENT BY JESUS {MALACHI 3:1} - THAT DOES NOT MAKE THEM "THE SON OF GOD" -  WHO IS GOD JUST LIKE HIS FATHER.

Now, are the disciples literally a "salvation to the…earth?" NO! { YES THEY ARE - IF THEY DIDN'T PASS THE WORD TO THE REST OF THE WORLD THEN THE WORD OF GOD WOULDN'T HAVE BEEN PASSED ON TO US}

They are appointed to bring the message of salvation, to be the instrument by which others are saved from this wicked world
when it is destroyed. However the verse says that they are "appointed....to be a salvation to the…earth."

NOW ALL OF SUDDEN THEY ARE SAVIOURS OF THE WORLD AS THEY BRING THE SALVATION TO THE WORLD - SORRY FOLKS -  BUT IT WOULD BE SO NICE IF THIS AUTHOR WOULD MAKE UP HIS MIND ONE WAY OR THE OTHER.

YES JESUS = GOD APPOINTED THEM {JOHN 15:16& 19 - JOHN 13:18 & MATTHEW 7:7} TO TELL US ABOUT HIS KINGDOM.  JUST AS HE DOES TODAY - HE CHOOSES HIS SERVANTS TO TELL OTHERS ABOUT HIM.

THIS IS = BECAUSE HE HAS NO HANDS NOR FEET NOR ARMS IN A PHYSICAL SENSE TO TELL OTHERS ABOUT HIMSELF. SO HE APPOINTS HIS SERVANTS TO TELL OTHERS WHO HE REALLY IS. TRUE GOD & SAVIOUR WHO SHED HIS BLOOD FOR YOU ON THE CROSS.

Thus Jehovah God, is the author or originator of the plans of salvation, but he uses individuals to carry out this salvation. Jesus, is the main, ultimate instrument of salvation that Jehovah gave the world of mankind.

YES – GOD IN HUMAN FLESH – PHILPPIANS 2: 6  TITUS 2:13 - JOHN 1:l-3

More on the Jesus/Jehovah Salvation reasonings under the Titus Section

LETS SEE HOW THIS PASSAGE APPEARS IN NIV:

"THIS IS W HAT THE LORD SAYS - ISRAEL'S KING & REDEEMER, THE LORD ALMIGHTY : I AM THE FIRST & I AM THE LAST; "APART" FROM ME THERE IS NO GOD. 7 WHO THEN IS LIKE ME? LET HIM PROCLAIM IT. LET HIM DECLARE AND LAY OUT BEFORE ME WHAT HAS HAPPENED SINCE I ESTABLISHED MY ANCIENT PEOPLE, AND WHAT IS YET TO COME, LET HIM  FORETELL WHAT WILL COME."

VERY DIFFERENT COMPARISON OF TWO PASSAGES - PLEASE RE READ IT AGAIN & SEE WHO IS THE FIRST & THE LAST - WHO IS THE ONE THAT CREATED THE ANCIENT PEOPLE OF ISRAEL??

Also Isaiah 48:12, as well as Rev. 1:17,18 regarding "first and last" will be discussed here.

Here some have said that Jehovah is spoken of as two individuals. [SORRY FOLKS I HAVEN'T MET ANY THAT SAY THAT] Modern translations make this line of reasoning almost non-existent. {I AGREE 100% - SURPRISED HEY - I AGREE WITH THE AUTHOR :-)) }It is very plain from the text, that Jehovah merely is one person, with two titles. {MORE THEN 2 BUT WE WILL NOT GO THERE NOW} However, confusion can be, and is caused, by the removal of the divine name (YAHWEH; Jehovah) from the translation, and then the insertion of a foreign word, LORD, in small capital letters. (What happens to those that add and take away from God’s word?) More on this point under the heading "Jehovah."

ONLY WT SAYS THIS - THE WORD LORD IS DERIVED FOR HEBREW WORD ADONAY {#113}& ADAON #334 & # 439 WHEN IT IS USED AS DIVINE NAME = TAKEN FROM VINES PAGE 140 1998 EDITION.

GREEK WORD KURIOS # 2962 IS TRANSLATED FROM ABOVE & THEN IN TO LORD IN ENGLISH

THESE WORDS WT MISUSE & RENDER AS JEHOVAH. WHEN YOU LOOK IN YOUR KINGDOM INTERLINEAR OF GREEK & ENGLISH SCRIPTURE YOU WILL SEE THAT THEY TRANSLATE IT AS "LORD" - THEN THEY TURN AROUND & RENDER IT AS JEHOVAH.

THIS IS NOT CORRECT GRAMMATICALLY & IT IS DONE TO DECEIVE THE READER. MORE IMPORTANTLY - THEY ONLY RENDER IT JEHOVAH WHEN THE SCRIPTURE IS NOT REFERRING TO JESUS.

IN PASSAGES LIKE JOHN 20 :28 THEY DID NOT RENDER IT AS JEHOVAH S THE PASSAGE WOULD READ "MY JEHOVAH & MY GOD"  - INTERESTING HEY???

Others point out that the term "first and last" is attributed to Jesus in the book of Revelation 1:17. And there is only "one" first and last, so Jesus must be Jehovah! Well lets peruse that idea shall we?

We already learned that two distinct individuals can share the same title, and yet not be the same
person in the Isaiah 9:6 section.

OK – SHARING THE SAME TITLE & NAME HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH BEING FIRST & THE LAST.

THE DOG THAT SAVED MY DAUGHTER FROM ATTACK IS CALLED "SAVIOUR" - HE IS SHARING A TITLE WITH A MAN WHO SAVED THE DROWNING GIRL IN LAKE  = BUT THAT DOESN'T MAKE THE DOG A MAN - NOR A MAN A DOG. LETS GET REAL & FACE UP TO THE LIFE FACTS OF LANGUAGE USE.

Let's however explore the Revelation scriptures:

Revelation 1:17,18: "And when I saw him, I fell as dead at his feet. And he laid his right hand upon me and said: "Do not be fearful. I am the First and the Last, 18 and the living one; and I became dead, but, look! I am living forever and ever, and I have the keys of death and of Ha'des."

Notice here that Jesus is indeed called the First and the Last. But in what "context"? Jesus here explains that he is the "First and Last" to die and come to life again. Thus, his position is unique.

OK – IS THIS SO – JESUS STATES THAT HE IS THE "LIVING ONE" HE  "BECAME" DEAD!

– THERE IS A DIFFERENCE OF BEING THE LINING ONE & THEN BECOMING DEAD & THEN HE STATES "BUT LOOK" I AM LINING FOR EVER –

AT NO TIME DOES JESUS SAY = I AM THE FIRST & LAST TO DIE – DOES HE – NO = HE STATES THAT = HE IS THE FIRST & LAST – HE IS THE ONE THAT BECAME FLESH - THEN "BECAME" DEAD & IS LIVING NOW.

PASSAGE TELLS US A DIFFERENT STORY TO WHAT THE AUTHOR ALLUDES TO – AGAIN HE IS READING IN TO THAT IS NOT THERE.

WHILE WE ARE HERE – LETS LOOK AT WHAT THE REV 1: 7-8 SAY IN NWT!

" LOOK! HE IS COMING WITH THE CLOUDS & EVERY EYE WILL SEE HIM (not invisible residing in the Brooklyn), AND THOSE WHO "PIERCED HIM", …. 8  I AM ALPHA & THE OMEGA SAYS THE JEHOVAH THE ONE WHO IS & WAS & WHO IS COMING THE ALMIGHTY.

WE KNOW THAT IT WAS 'JESUS' WHO WAS PIERCED & WHO WE ARE EXPECTING BACK.
Hmm – WT CALLS HIM JEHOVAH -  PLEASE READ REVELATION 22:12 –13 & 16 &
SEE WHO IS SPEAKING & WHAT HE CALLS HIMSELF.

First off we ask: Can God die? Habakkuk. 1:12 says: "Are you not from long ago, O Jehovah? O my God, my Holy One, you do not die." Thus God cannot die, yet Jesus did die. Thus Jesus is Not God. (More on this under the heading 1 Peter)

YES - JESUS’ BODY WAS WITHOUT THE SPIRIT – WHEN HE PASSED AWAY – BUT HIS "SPIRIT" WAS NOT DEAD – HIS SPIRIT WAS WITH THE FATHER (LUKE 23 : 46) THIS IS A BIG POINT –

GOD IS SPIRIT & JESUS’ SPIRIT DID NOT DIE =  JUST THAT THE BODY WAS WITHOUT THE SPIRIT FOR FEW DAYS.

Secondly, his death and resurrection is unique. Remember, Jesus was NOT the first and last to be resurrected. Many were raised from the dead, both prior to, and during, Jesus life on earth.

BUT THE PASSAGE DOES NOT REFER TO THE RESURRECTION - THIS IS A CHANGE OF SUBJECT – HERE JESUS – REFERS TO HIS "EXISTENCE" & NOT DEATH & RESURRECTION-

HE DOES TELL US THAT HE WAS PIERCED - HE WAS DEAD & HE WAS RESURRECTED IN THE FLESH. THOSE WHO SAY THAT JESUS DIDN'T RISE IN THE SAME BODY I WILL CITE THIS PASSAGE FOR YOU:

LUKE 24:36 "AND SAYING, IT IS TRUE! THE LORD HAS RISEN AND APPEARED TO SIMON."

PLEASE NOTE THAT IT SAYS - IT IS TRUE!

NOW I ASK YOU - ARE YOU SAYING THAT THIS IS A LIE??

Could it be that Jesus will be the only person to have died and gone to heaven? No, for he said to his disciples, that where he was (in heaven), they too would be with him (in heaven). So they would die and go to heaven as well. So then Jesus’ death and resurrection was unique. But, in what way?  SO TRUE

Jesus helps us to understand in what unique way he was the "First and Last" regarding dying and coming to life again, at the very end of verse 18 where he stated:"…and I have the keys of death and of Ha'des"

BUT WHAT DID JESUS REALLY SAY – HE SAID THAT HE WAS THE LIVING ONE & HE BECAME DEAD & HE  LIVES FOR EVER & EVER. HE ALSO TELLS US THAT HE HAS THE KEYS TO HADES.

JESUS IS OUR FINAL JUDGE JOHN 5:22 23 - SO ANYONE WHO DOES NOT BELIEVE HIS WORDS WILL END UP IN HADES - BUT THOSE WHO DO BELIEVE HIM WILL BE SPARED THAT ENTRY AS JESUS WILL KEEPS US OUT FROM HADES.

Jesus at John 5:25-30 says this: "Most truly I say to YOU, The hour is coming, and it is now, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God and those who have given heed will live. For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted also to the Son to have life in himself. And he has given him authority to do judging, because Son of man he is. Do not marvel at this,
because the hour is coming in which all those in the memorial tombs will hear his voice and come out, those who did good things to a resurrection of life, those who practised vile things to a resurrection of judgement. I cannot do a single thing of my own initiative; just as I hear, I judge; and the judgement that I render is righteous, because I seek, not my own will, but the will of him that sent me.

Notice here that the dead hear the voice of Jesus, and then are raised up to life.

THIS HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH JESUS BEING "FIRST & LAST" THIS IS DESIGNED SO TO TAKE THE READER FROM SUBJECT AT HAND

-Verse 26 says that the Father GRANTED (Greek 'didomi' meaning "permitted to have;" "bestowed;" "given") the Son to have life in himself (immortality). Thus Jesus was NOT from eternity, for one who is from eternity cannot be GIVEN Immortality, he already possesses it!

NO – NO - NO – WHAT THIS VERSE IS SAYING IS THAT JUST AS FATHER IS LIVING "ALIVE" SO IS THE SON – "ALIVE" & LIVING - & NOT THAT SON IS BEING CREATED

LETS SEE HOW THIS VERSE APPEARS IN NIV :

"FOR AS THE FATHER HAS LIFE IN HIMSELF SO HE HAS GRANTED THE SON TO HAVE LIFE IN HIMSELF"

NOTE THAT THE AUTHOR USES THE WORD UNDERLINED "IMMORTALITY"  - JESUS IS IMMORTAL & ALWAYS WAS IMMORTAL.

FATHER HAS GRANTED JESUS THE AUTHORITY TO GIVE US = {FOR THE BENEFIT OF MAN} =  YOU & ME, THE SAME KIND OF IMMORTALITY AFTER WE PASS OVER FROM THIS LIFE INTO SPIRITUAL LIFE - 1 JOHN 5:11 = HE WHO HAS THE SON HAS THIS LIFE =  VERSE 12 - ANYONE WHO DOES NOT HAVE THE SON - DOES NOT HAVE THIS LIFE.-

THIS PASSAGE MUST BE UNDERSTOOD AGAINST THE OT WRITINGS OR BACKGROUND - WHERE LIFE IS BEING SPOKEN OF AS BELONGING TO GOD - DT. 30:20 - JOB 10:12 - 33:3 - PS. 16: 11 - 27: 1 - 36: 9

- Besides, Jesus was yet to die, so the application of this verse is in the future. NOT at the present. For even verse 28 says
"….the hour is COMING in which ALL those in the memorial tombs will come out……"

AGAIN THIS HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH THE SUBJECT AT HAND – IT’S TAKING THE READER AWAY FOR THE DISCUSSION INSTEAD -

Thus the time was not then for ALL those in the graves to be raised up. (even though a small group of persons were raised by Jesus and the apostles while on earth.)  But look at Verse 27. There Jesus is said to be given authority. This authority is for the judging of the resurrected dead that "hear the voice of the Son of Man."
 

EVEN THE AUTHOR AGREES NOW - THAT THIS AUTHORITY IS FOR JUDGING & NOT TO HAVE LIFE IN HIMSELF AS EH SAID EARLIER. HMMMM!

Thus the keys of Death and Hades Jesus has in his hands has to do with the resurrection.

AGAIN – THIS HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH THE FIRST & THE LAST OR JESUS' IMMORTALITY AS MENTIONED WHEN W E STARTED TO DISCUSS THIS SUBJECT.

So then we ask: Who resurrected Jesus to heaven

(John 2:19 – Jesus tells us that He will raise Himself up from the dead- see also John 10:17 – In  Thessalonians it is the Father that Resurrects Jesus & in Romans 8:11 it is the Holy Spirit that resurrects Jesus) and in what way was this unique enough to have Jesus say that He was the First and the Last of this type of resurrection?

AS SAID ALREADY – THIS PASSAGE REFERS TO JESUS’ ETERNITY & NOT HIS RESURRECTION.

Well, notice back in John 5:26,27, that it was the Father that gave Jesus immortality and the authority to raise the dead and Judge them.

Not so – THIS PASSAGE IS TELLING US THAT JESUS HAS BEEN GIVEN SAME KIND OF LIFE AS THE FATHER HAS "ETERNAL LIFE" THAT IS FROM ETERNITY TO ETERNITY – THIS WAS DONE FOR THE BENEFIT OF MAN – IN OTHER WORDS – JESUS WHO WAS WITH THE FATHER IN THE SPIRIT FORM – WAS GIVEN HUMAN FLESH SO THAT MAN CAN OBTAIN LIFE WITH GOD IN "SPIRITUAL" FORM AFTER DEATH -  (SEE 1 JOHN 511)

Thus Jesus own literal death and resurrection had to be by his Father! Galatians 1:1 says this: "Paul, an apostle, neither from men nor through a man, but through Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised him up from the dead." See also John 2:19 –1 Thess. 1:10 & Romans 8:11.

More on Jesus Resurrection under John 2:19,21

Thus the Father raised Jesus DIRECTLY. All other resurrections will be done THROUGH Jesus. So at Revelation 1:17,18 we are forced [WE ARE NOT "FORCED TO BELIEVE ANYTHING THAT IS NOT THERE] - to conclude that Jesus is the "first and last," in that he was the "first and last" person to be DIRECTLY resurrected to Heaven by Jehovah God himself!

More on Revelation 1:17,18 under the heading Revelation.

Finally: The idea that there is no God besides Jehovah.

As we have seen in our discussion of Isaiah 43:10, the context shows that Jehovah is being contrasted with idols that the nation of Israel had made. Here the context remains. There is NO God other than Jehovah in contrast to idols made by man that men
worshipped as gods. This is proven to be the context of Isaiah 44:6 by reading verses 9 & 10 of the same chapter: "The
formers of the carved image are all of them an unreality, and their darlings themselves will be of no benefit; and as their witnesses they see nothing and know nothing, in order that they may be ashamed. Who has formed a god or cast a mere molten image? Of no benefit at all has it been."

WE HAVE SHOWN THAT NO ONE HAS SEEN NOR HEARD THE FATHER & THAT JEHOVAH OF OT IS JESUS. ALSO WE HAVE SHOWN THAT JESUS CAN NOT BE "MIGHT GOD" AS WELL AS " a god"  AS THERE IS NO OTHER GODS BESIDE HIM.

WE ALSO KEEP REFERRING YOU TO ZAC. 12: 10 & MALACHI 3:1

REGARDS JESUS' AUTHORITY - SOMETHING FOR YOU TO PONDER ON.

IF I WERE TO GIVE YOU FULL OR ALL AUTHORITY IN MY HOUSE HOLD AS MY GUEST - WHAT WOULD YOU BE ENTITLED TO DO?  REMEMBER IT IS ALL AUTHORITY.

"This is what Jehovah has said, your Repurchaser and the Former of you from the belly: "I, Jehovah, am doing everything, stretching out the heavens by myself, laying out the earth. Who was with me?"

LETS SEE HOW NIV RENDERS THIS PASSAGE ALSO:

"THIS IS WHAT THE LORD SAYS - YOUR REDEEMER, WHO FORMED YOU IN THE WOMB:  I AM THE LORD, WHO HAS MADE "ALL" THINGS, WHO ALONE STRETCHED OUT THE HAVENS, WHO SPREAD OUT THE EARTH BY MY SELF, 25 WHO FOILS THE SIGNS OF FALSE PROPHETS AND MAKES FOOLS OF DIVINERS, WHO OVERTHROWS THE LEARNING OF THE WISE & TURNS IT INTO NONSENSE."

PLEASE NOTE THAT GOD SAYS THAT HE IS FIRST & THE LAST & NOT "SOME" TRINITARIAN - OK!!

Some say this proves that Jesus was God because no one was with Jehovah when he alone, by himself, created the earth. Is this the case? {GOD SAID IT OK!} How can we understand this scripture? Well, the Bible clearly shows that the earth and the systems of things, were created THROUGH Jesus. We read this at John 1:3,4: "All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence. What has come into existence by means of him was life, and the life was the light of men."

THIS IS SO TRUE - WHAT WE MUST UNDERSTAND IS THIS - THAT THE WORD "THROUGH" - DOESN'T MEAN THAT HE DIDN'T CREATE.  PLEASE NOTE THE SECOND PART THAT IS UNDERLINED ALSO.

APART FROM HIM NOT EVEN ONE THING CAM INTO EXISTENCE. WE CAN NOT ALLOW OUR SELVES TO BE DISTRACTED FROM THE MEANING OF THE WHOLE PASSAGE & CONCENTRATE ON "ONE" WORD!!

JESUS WAS THE CREATOR OF EVERYTHING. IN COLOSSINANS  1: 16 & 17 WE READ LIKE THIS.

"FOR "BY" HIM ALL THINGS WERE CREATED: THINGS IN HEAVEN & ON EARTH, VISIBLE & INVISIBLE, WHETHER THRONES OR POWERS OR RULERS OR AUTHORITIES; ALL THINGS WERE CREATED BY HIM AND FOR HIM. HE IS BEFORE ALL THINGS, AND IN HIM ALL THINGS HOLD TOGETHER."

AS YOU CAN SEE JESUS CREATED "EVERYTHING" IN HEAVEN & EARTH

Yes, the Bible clearly shows that Jesus was the means "through which" creation was accomplished. [PLEASE RE READ THE BIBLE TEXT AS A WHOLE AGAIN?] But, because the text says "by myself," are we to conclude that Jehovah literally alone created the heavens and earth, and that Jesus must be Jehovah?

THAT IS WHAT HE IS SAYING! ARE YOU GOING TO QUESTION WHAT GOD SAID?

Some say yes, but what does the Bible say?

THE BIBLE HAS ALREADY STATED IT IN THE ABOVE STATEMENT – WHAT FOLLOWS IS "ALLUSION" AGAIN = THAT IS READING & MAKING THINGS UP SO TO SUITE THE AUTHORS REASONING AGAIN.

Well, as we have noted, the creation here being spoken of, is that of the "heavens and the earth." "….. stretching out the heavens by myself, laying out the earth……" Was Jehovah literally alone at this time?

THIS SO FULL OF INNUENDOES AGAIN- WHEN I CREATE A CAR BY MY SELF OR ANYTHING ELSE FOR THAT MATTER - THIS DOESN'T MEAN THAT I WAS ALONE? NOT AT ALL -  IT MEANS THAT IT WAS "I" WHO CREATED OR MADE THINGS BY MY SELF.

IN OTHER WORDS I DIDN'T HAVE ANY HELP FROM ANYONE - MY KIDS - MY WIFE - MY PARENTS, MY NEIGHBOURS ETC. DO YOU SEE THE  POINT HERE? I REALLY HOPE THAT YOU. NOTE THE HIGHLIGHTED WORDS "BY MYSELF" ID DID ID & NOT I WAS ALONE

Job 38: 4,7 helps us to answer this question: "Where did you happen to be when I founded the earth? Tell [me], if you do know understanding. When the morning stars joyfully cried out together, And all the sons of God began shouting in applause?"

OK – WE HAVE TO MAKE SURE OF WHAT IS BEING SAID TO WHO  - FIRST OF ALL – IT IS LORD SPEAKING & ASKING "JOB" WHERE WAS "HE" JOB – IN VERSE  1 we read – "THEN THE LORD ANSWERED JOB OUT OF THE STORM. HE SAID. –v- 4 Lord asks
Job   " WHERE WERE YOU WHEN I LAID THE EARTH'S FOUNDATION etc…"

IN THIS ENTIRE CHAPTER "LORD" IS ASKING JOB THE QUESTIONS IN REFERENCE TO WHERE HE "JOB" WAS WHILE LORD WAS CREATING EVERYTHING.

PLEASE READ THE WHOLE CHAPTER YOUR SELF ESPECIALLY VERSES 4-38 AS THEY ARE SHOWING INANIMATE CREATION OF GOD & THEY TESTIFY TO "GOD’S" SOVEREIGNTY AND LOWER.

So we can see that the morning stars (the angels), the "sons of God" (angels) were there when Jehovah created the "Heavens and the Earth" (Genesis 1:1) for they applauded.

SO THEY SHOULD HAVE - LORD DID A GREAT JOB CREATING THE UNIVERSE & EVERYTHING IN IT- DIDN'T HE?

So then, we conclude from the above, that Jehovah was not literally  alone. But was Jehovah  literally alone in the act of creating the earth?

JEHOVAH STATES THAT IT WAS HE WHO CREATED IT ALL THINGS - WHO ARE WE TO DISAGREE WITH OUR CREATOR - OR IS THERE SOMETHING THAT GOD DOESN'T KNOW & WE HAVE TO CORRECT HIM?? HMMMM

-Well, the context here is on Jehovah being the "author" or "originator" of the creation, in contrast with the false idol gods the nation of Israel were getting involved with. [NOT AT ALL – LORD WAS TALKING TO JOB] - (Isaiah 44:9 see
above under Isaiah 43:10 for further comments [THESE PASSAGES HAVE NOTHING TO DO WITH THE JOB PASSAGE – THEY A RE TOTALLY "UNRELATED")
Jehovah is the true source of all life and all things. He alone deserves the honor and worship of his creation, and not the false idol gods.  TRUE !!
However, the Bible does teach that he created the systems of things (the heavens and the earth) THROUGH his Son in heaven!

NOT TRUE!! JEHOVAH CREATED EVERYTHING VISIBLE & INVISIBLE IN HEAVEN & EARTH = PLEASE RE READ THE ABOVE PASSAGES AGAIN?

We see absolute proof of this at Hebrews 1:2 which reads: "(God) has at the end of these days spoken to us by means of a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the systems of things."

OK – LETS TIE IT ALL TOGETHER NOW – JOHN 1:3 & HEB 1:2 TELLS US THAT JESUS WAS THE CREATOR OF "EVERYTHING" – SO HOW CAN HE CREATE HIMSELF?

IT IS NOT TRUE!!  THERE IS NOT ONE PASSAGE WHERE IT IS "CLEARLY" STATED THAT FATHER CREATED HIS SON – IT IS ONLY ALLUDED TO – BY DENIERS OF CHRIST & TEACHES OF A DIFFERENT DOCTRINE THEN WHAT THE APOSTLES TAUGHT. WE SHOULD STAY AWAY FROM THESE AS THEY LEAD US ASTRAY. 2 CORINTHIANS 11:4; 2 THESSALONIANS 1:8; 1 JOHN 2:22 –23; GALATIANS 1:6-9; 2 TIMOTHY 3:4-9.

So then how do we reconcile this apparent contradiction?

THERE IS NO CONTRADICTION ONLY ALLUSIONS BY SOME -

Many in the Bible have been spoken of as being the sole source or sole originator of their achievements, while others were used to actually carry out the task. We see proof of this by comparing Exodus 32:8 to 32:35: "They have turned aside in a hurry from the way I have commanded them to go. They have made a molten statue of a calf for themselves and keep bowing down to it and sacrificing to it and saying, ‘This is your God, O Israel, who led you up out of the land of Egypt.’" And Jehovah began plaguing the people because they had made the calf, which Aaron had made."

In verse 8, Jehovah attributed the making of the calf to the nation of Israel. However in verse 35, it says that "they" (the nation of Israel) made the calf, then it says that was actually Aaron who made the calf. Thus, whereas Aaron literally made the calf, Jehovah attributed its creation to the nation of Israel for they were the originators of the idea of having Aaron create the calf in the first place.

AGAIN THIS HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH CREATION OF THE UNIVERSE & EVERYTHING IN IT BY JESUS – THE AUTHOR IS TAKING THE READER AWAY FROM THE SUBJECT AT HAND & "CREATING" SOMETHING TOTALLY DIFFERENT AGAIN.

AS FAR AS GOD WAS CONCERNED - THE WHOLE NATION WAS RESPONSIBLE FOR BUILDING THE CALF AS THEY URGED AARON TO BUILD IT AS HE WAS THE CRAFTSMAN THAT COULD DO IT.

GOD DOES NOT CHOOSE SELECTIVELY HERE - THEY WERE ALL GUILTY OF A HEINOUS CRIME AGAINST GOD.

JUST LIKE - WHEN THERE ARE 5 PERSONS WHO PARTAKE IN A ROBBERY OF  A BANK - ONE IS DRIVING THE VEHICLE - ONE IS KEEPING A EYE ON THE PROCEEDINGS SO TO WARN THE OTHERS 3 WHO ARE INSIDE THE BANK DOING THE ACTUAL ACT OF ROBBING THE TELLERS.

WHO IS GUILTY OF THE ACTUAL CRIME - THE DRIVER - THE PERSON WHO IS KEEPING THE WATCH - THE 3 ROBBERS  OR ALL 5??

THE ANSWER IS ALL 5 RIGHT!!  SAME PRINCIPLE APPLIES TO THE ABOVE PASSAGE. THEY WERE ALL JUST AS GUILTY FOR PARTAKING IN THE ACT OF DISOBEDIENCE TO GOD.

Daniel 4:30 is another example of this where we read: "The king was answering and saying: "Is not this Babylon the Great, that I myself have built for the royal house with the strength of my might and for the dignity of my majesty?"

The King being spoken of here was King Nebuchadnezzar (verse 28). Did King Nebuchadnezzar literally build the empire of Babylon by himself? NO! But rather he was credited for its growth to worl