Some notes and comments on various Biblical texts some have used to promote the doctrine of the Trinity. The main approach that will be used to arrive at a proper balanced view of these texts is based on the FACT that the Bible interprets itself.

 To all that are reading these pages - First of all – TRINITY is a basic understanding of Christianity. However it is not DRUMMED into anyone – BUT it is DRUMMED into each & EVERY JW & that it is NOT a Bible teaching – reason for this is to CONFUSE the individual on what the Bible teaches us on this subject. By concentrating on teachings such as Trinity they divert the MAIN issues of their own teachings & concentrate on Their MISTRANSLATION of GREEK SCRIPTURES so lets see HOW they do this by going through the verses below.

Some notes and comments on various Biblical texts some have used to promote the doctrine of  the Trinity. The main approach that will be used to arrive at a proper balanced view of these text is based on the FACT that the Bible interprets itself.

This verse is one that some say, proves God is triune.

THIS IS NOT SO – THIS IS USED TO MISLEAD – THIS PASSAGE IS USED & COMPARED WITH (John 1:3)

 So to show who Jesus is - But how can anyone arrive at that conclusion from reading this verse? Well the fact is, you can't. Yet some point out that the Hebrew word here translated God, which is "elohim," is in the plural form.

ELOHIM IS A PLURAL WORD – BUT I WILL COVER THAT LATER

Trinitarians then conclude that this proves that God is three persons within the Godhead.

AGAIN THIS IS NOT SO I WILL COVER THAT LATER

Is  this the case? Is Jehovah God here identified as three persons within the Godhead? Let us explore this at some

The Hebrew word elohim is the plural form of the Hebrew word el meaning God. The Literal meaning of elohim is "gods." Now, trinitarians are quick to point out that they do not believe their trinity to be three Gods, but rather three persons who are
the one God, as is outlined on the introduction page to this site. Yet the fact remains, "elohim" literally means "gods".

THIS IS SO TRUE – THE WORD DOES MEAN GODS

So then, how can they justify their stance?

Well, trinitarians attempt to persuade ones to believe that this plurality of the word el means a "plurality of three persons within the one Godhead." But in reality this hardly settles the issue. Why? Because the fact remains, regardless of their belief...........that "elohim," literally means "gods." The word in and of itself, does NOT mean "a plurality of three persons within the one Godhead, it means "gods."

FIRST - PLEASE NOTE THE UNDERLINED WORDS - IN THE FIRST INSTANCE THE AUTHOR TELLS US THAT THE WORD MEANS "gods" - PLURAL FORM - THEN IN THE SECOND INSTANCE 6 WORDS FURTHER ON - HE CHANGES HIS MIND & TELLS US THAT IT DOES NOT MEAN PLURALITY. HMMMMM

YES IT DOES MEAN “GODS” & ALSO IT MEANS “GOD”  – DEPENDING ON THE GRAMMATICAL CONTEXT – LIKE ENGLISH WORD “YOU” IT HAS BOTH CONNOTATIONS – DEPENDING ON THE GRAMMATICAL CONTEXT – You can refer to Singular or Plural form –  depending on the context that it is used.

LETS SEE WHAT THE AUTHOR OF THE ABOVE PASSAGE LEAVES OUT – IN VERSE 2b – “And the SPIRIT “OF” GOD WAS HOVERING THE WATERS” –v- 3 “God said – let there be light etc…”

NOTE THAT HERE ARE TWO PERSONS ALREADY INVOLVED – “THE SPIRIT OF GOD & GOD WHO WAS CREATING – INTERESTING OMISSION ISN’T IT?? IT IS 2 IDENTITIES (1) GOD & (2) SPIRIT "OF" GOD.

So we could rightfully end our discussion here, and leave the question hanging. But instead, let us analyze the following questions:

1. How can honest hearted Bible students understand the undeniable Bible truth, that "elohim" is indeed the plural form of God?

So TRUE – BUT ALSO DEPENDING ON THE CONTEXT LIKE THE ENGLISH WORD “YOU” IT MUST BE RENDERED & UNDERSTOOD IN THAT ACCORDANCE – SINGULAR OR PLURAL

 2. Is Jehovah literally Gods?

ACCORDING TO THE DEFINITION OF THE WORD “ELOHIM” – THE ANSWER IS – YES - & ALSO GOD - THIS PLURALITY IS IN "UNITY" OF 3 PERSONS!!

3. Is Jehovah in reality a plurality of three persons within the one Godhead?

NOT YET ESTABLISHED – THAT WILL COME LATER-

4. Or is there perhaps another explanation of the use of plurality in the Hebrew language?

What we will do next, will be done consistently throughout the rest of this page, as we Consider other scriptures used to defend the doctrine of the trinity. We are going to let the Bible Interpret itself. So then, let us simply examine other instances of this
word "elohim" through out the Bible for a clearer understanding of its meaning.

PLEASE NOTE THAT THE AUTHOR USE THE WORD “US” IN HIS PASSAGE – THIS WILL BE EXPLAINED SOON

BEFORE WE GO ON TO THE NEXT TEXT – LETS SEE WHAT ELSE THE AUTHOR LEAVES OUT – SO TO DECEIVE HIS READERS =

IN GEN. 1:26 “THEN GOD SAID, - Let “US” MAKE MAN IN OUR IMAGE, IN OUR IMAGE, IN OUR LIKENESS…etc.”

PLEASE NOTE THE WORD “US” IN THE BIBLE PASSAGE =  THIS OBVIOUSLY REFERS TO MORE THEN ONE PERSON – JUST AS THE AUTHOR IN HIS PARAGRAPH ABOVE USES THE WORD “US” SO TO GET THE READER [YOU] & HIMSELF EXPLORE THE POSSIBILITIES – So does the GOD USE THE WORD “US” TO REFER TO MORE THEN ONE PERSON.

WE HAVE ALREADY SEEN THAT THE “SPIRIT OF GOD” WAS MOVING ABOVE THE SURFACE OF THE WATER & THAT “GOD” WAS CREATING – NOW WHO ELSE COULD IT BE THAT “US” IS REFERRING TO?

Obviously not “angels”  AS GOD DID NOT SAY LETS CREATE MAN IN “ANGEL” LIKENESS – NOR WERE ANGELS EVER USED AS CREATORS – BUT SERVANTS – THEREFORE THERE MUST BE SOMEONE ELSE – WOULDN’T YOU SAY?

 The following are a few select locations where the word "elohim" (plural form of el, God) is used. Let us look at each of these to see just how this word is used else where so we can arrive at a proper understanding of this word.

Ex. 32:1,4,31: "Meanwhile the people got to see that Moses was taking a long time about coming down from the mountain. So the people congregated themselves about Aaron and said to him: "Get up, make for us a god (elohim) who will go ahead of us,
because as regards this Moses, the man who led us up out of the land of Egypt, we certainly do not know what has happened
to him.  Then he took [the gold] from their hands, and he formed it with a graving tool and proceeded to make it into a molten statue of a calf. And they began to say: "This is your God, O Israel, who led you up out of the land of Egypt." So Moses returned to Jehovah and said: "Ah, but this people has sinned with a great sin, in that they made a god (elohim) of
gold for themselves!" Here we see that the golden calf the nation of Israel had Aaron build is called "elohim."

 THE ABOVE PASSAGE IS USED TO DECEIVE THE READER AGAIN –

LET’S FACE FACTS FIRST – WHAT OTHER WORD COULD THE WRITERS USE TO DESCRIBE AN “IDOL” NONE –AS THERE IS NO OTHER WORD THAT COULD BE USED – Jews  AT THAT TIME WERE COMPLETELY ANNOYED THAT THEY DID NOT HAVE A “VISIBLE” GOD/S – SO THEY DEMANDED THAT ONE  BE MADE SO THAT THEY CAN WORSHIP SOMETHING THAT THEY COULD SEE – JUST AS THE KINGDOMS AROUND THEM HAD “HUMAN gods”

TO WORSHIP. THEIR SPIRIT GOD WASN’T ENOUGH FOR THEM – THEY WANTED MORE SO THEY HAD THEMSELVES “IDOLS” MADE.

Judges 16:23: "As for the Phi·lis'tine axis lords, they gathered together to sacrifice a great Sacrifice to Da'gon their god (elohim) and for rejoicing, and they kept saying: "Our god has given into our hand Samson our enemy!" Here we see the pagan god, Dagon is called "elohim."

AT THIS TIME OF THE BIBLE  HISTORY – IT WAS THE DONE THING TO OFFER” A TRIBUTE’ A VICTORY TO THE NATIONAL “DEITIES” – SO THEY DID OFFER A TRIBUTES TO THEIR “DEITIES” – IT IS IMPORTANT TO READ WHO DID WHAT IN ALL THE PASSAGES THAT THIS AUTHOR USES – THE VERSE STATES “THEN THE LORDS (KJV- NOTE PLURAL –Lords” )  - GATHERED TO OFFER GREAT SACRIFICES UNTO DAGON THEIR god – etc…”   THE HEBREW WORD MUST BE TRANSLATED IN CONTEXT AT ALL TIMES – IF & WHEN IT REFERS TO PLURAL IT MUST BE RENDERED AS SUCH & WHEN IN SINGULAR – THEN IT MUST BE RENDERED IN SINGULAR FORM – JUST LIKE THE ENGLISH WORD “YOU” IT HAS BOTH CONNOTATIONS DEPENDING ON THE CONTEXT OF THE STATEMENT.

 Psalm 8:5: "You also proceeded to make him a little less than godlike ones, (elohim) And With glory and splendor you then crowned him." Here the Psalmist calls the angels "elohim." [YES – SO TRUE  - BECAUSE “ANGELS ARE OF ‘DIVINE’ NATURE – BUT LOVER IN RANK – SO THE SAME WORD IS USED – JUST AS WE HUMANS USE THE SAME WORD FOR SO CALLED –HUMAN- gods -] We know this from comparing Hebrews 2:7 where Paul quotes this passage and translates "elohim" as angels: "You made him a little lower than angels (elohim) with glory and honor you crowned him, and appointed him over the works of your hands." See last
comment -

So then, are we to conclude that because others are called "elohim" in the Bible, this means that they also are a "plurality of persons within the Godhead?" Of course not!

But we have seen also that the WORD “ELOHIM” MUST BE USED IN THE PROPER GRAMMATICAL CONTEXT ALSO.

 And neither is God a plurality of persons within the Godhead at Genesis 1:1.

THIS IS AN ASSUMPTION ON THE PERSONS OWN UNDERSTANDING & NOT “GRAMMATICALLY” CORRECT – BUT IT IS USED TO DECEIVE THE READER

So then, just how do we understand the plurality of "elohim" as used in the Bible? Well, Hebrew has a plurality that is not a numerical plurality. It is called a plurality of "excellence" or "majesty." It is used when there is reference to a person or thing that is very important or is in a position of prominence. In the English language, we have a similar usage of the "plurality of majesty" we refer to as the "royal we." OR YOU -

Other words in the Bible, can take on this "plurality of excellence," or "majesty," as well.

Notice Genesis 42:30 where we read: "The man who is the lord (adhoneh plural form of adhohn) of the country spoke harshly with us, since he took us for men spying on the country."

How many "persons" were there that were the "lords" of the country? Verse 25 of the same chapter tells us: "After that Joseph gave the command, and they went filling up their receptacles with grain. Also, they were to return the money of the men
to each one's individual sack and to give them provisions for the journey. Accordingly it was done so to them."

Yes, it was one person, Joseph, not many or a plurality of persons, but one single individual who was the lord of the country. Yet, we see Joseph was referred to as the "lords" of the country.

WAS HE REALLY – MY KJV & NIV BIBLES TRANSLATES THE WORD “LORD” &  NOT LORDS –

"THE MAN WHO IS THE "LORD"  OVER LAND SPOKE HARSHLY.." NIV:

"THE MAN, WHO IS THE "LORD" OF THE LAND, SPAKE ROUGHLY TO US.." KJV:
 

'THIS AGAIN IS USED TO DECEIVE – I SAID EARLIER – GRAMMATICAL CONTEXT MUST BE CONSIDERED IN “ALL” CASES –THE AUTHOR CONFUSES THE ISSUE BY USING ONE MEANING TO ANOTHER – WHICH IS TRANSLATION.

THERE IS NO MENTION OF LORDS - IS THERE??

 Why? Because of his position of prominence. So if others are rightfully referred to in the "plurality of majesty or excellence" because of their position of prominence......

AGAIN- THIS LAST STATEMENT IS CONFUSING THE READER - -THE WORD TRANSLATED INTO GRAMMATICAL CONTEXT AS “LORD” & NOT “LORDS”

why can't Jehovah God, the Creator and Sovereign Lord of the Universe be referred to in the "plurality of excellence" as well? The fact is, he can be, and is, referred to in the plurality of majesty and prominence as evidenced in the very opening words of his inspired book, the Bible!

 THE IMPORTANT FACT TO CONSIDER IS THE LANGUAGE USED & GRAMMATICAL CONTEXT THAT THE WORDS ARE USED IN THAT LANGUAGE & NOT TO “ MAKE” THINGS MEAN WHAT YOU WANT THEM TO MEAN -

NOTE ALSO THAT THE AUTHOR HERE IS SAYING THAT "JEHOVAH GOD" IS THE CREATOR OF EVERYTHING - BUT JOHN 1: 3 & COLOSSINANS 1: 16 TELLS US THAT IT IS JESUS WHO IS THE CREATOR OF HEAVEN & EARTH & EVERYTHING VISIBLE & INVISIBLE. SO WHO IS JESUS??

"Now the earth proved to be formless and waste and there was darkness upon the surface of  [the] watery deep; and God’s active force (NOTE HERE WT TRANSLATION & NOT KJV- KJV & NIV TRANSLATE THE WORD CORRECTLY AS “SPIRIT OF GOD”} -  was moving to and from over the surface of the waters."

The Hebrew word translated "active force" is "ruach." Here in Genesis 1:2, we find it is in The FEMININE Gender of the Hebrew word. Some Bibles translate "ruach" as "Holy Spirit." See page on the Spirit of God & Holy Spirit – all is explained there on this word –

ALL BIBLES that are not written by DENIERS of JESUS – translate the word as –“Spirit of God”.

 In an effort by Trinitarians to teach the holy spirit is a person, they say that one of the reasons the holy spirit is God is: See Acts 5: 3-4

 Acts 5:3-4 – I will quote NWT here so to completely make false of what this author says OK  - Full quote:

“But Peter said : ‘An-a-nias, why has  Satan emboldened  you to play false to the holy spirit (note holy spirit & not active force  but in lower case) and to hold back secretly some of the price of the field? As long as it remained with you did it not remain yours, and after it was sold did it not continue in your control? Why was it that you purposed such a deed as this in your heart? You have played false not to men , But to GOD”. –

Please note that when you lie to HOLY SPIRIT – YOU ARE LYING TO GOD – NWT own translation – which agrees with EVERY other translation also – THE GB Translating body missed this passage. Who knows how they will translate it in the future editions?

"Some of the Greek words translated Holy Spirit are written in the masculine gender form of the word." This then means the Holy Spirit is a person, a "he," and that the Holy Spirit is God.

Is this sound reasoning?

 I SAY YES & SO DOES THE WT. OWN  BIBLE – SO ARE WE TO DISAGREE WITH WT? Hmmm

 In Genesis 1:2, we find the Hebrew word translated "holy spirit" or active force, in the FEMININE Gender. So then, do we conclude the holy spirit is a female?

THING TO CONSIDER HERE IS THIS: GOD CREATED “MALE & FEMALE IN HIS IMAGE:  NOT JUST MALE & NOT JUST FEMALE - BUT MALE & FEMALE IN HIS IMAGE!!

Gender of a word has nothing to do with identity. It has to do with the language. Gender belongs to the language of the word, not to the case of, or the object of the word.

NOTE HOW THE GRAMMATICAL CONTEXT NOW COMES IN TO PLAY – INTERESTING ISN’T IT?

YET THE SAME RULES WERE NOT USED IN PREVIOUS PARAGRAPHS – THIS IS WHAT I MEAN WHEN I SAY THAT IN “EVERY” PASSAGE THE SAME RULES “MUST” APPLY & NOT ONLY WHEN IT SUITES THE AUTHOR.

IT IS AMAZING HOW WE CHANGE  OR MIND WHEN IT SUITES US.

 We read at Psalms 147:18: "He sends forth his word and melts them. He causes his wind (ruchoh) to blow; The waters trickle."

Here we find the same Hebrew word translated "wind." So is the holy spirit literal wind? Of course not. And neither is the holy spirit a literal person because it is written in a masculine or feminine gender. But more on the holy spirit under the comments on Acts 13:2

AGAIN SEE THE PAGE ON THIS ENTIRE MEANING -  CLICK HERE!

 "And God went on to say: "Let us make man in our image, according to our likeness, and let them   have in subjection the fish of the sea and the flying creatures of the heavens and the domestic animals and all the earth and every moving animal that is moving upon the earth."

Here some have said that because Jehovah said "Let us......" that God is triune.

NOT AT ALL – JUST THAT THERE IS MORE THEN ONE PERSON – THE AUTHOR IS ASSUMING AGAIN

First off, let us note, that this scripture in no stretch of the imagination can prove positively that God is three  persons, just
because this verse uses the word "us." The word "us," does not limit the ones in the conversation that God is speaking with, to "3" persons, now does it? It could just as well be understood to refer to 143 persons, as in the President of the Acme Bridge Building company tells his co-workers: "Let "us" (the company of 143 persons) build this bridge."

 THIS IS SO TRUE

 Here however, Jehovah was simply speaking to his Son, Jesus, his master worker. The Son is the one "through whom" he (Jehovah God) created the system of things.

I WILL ASK A REALLY BIG QUESTION HERE FOLKS – ACCORDING TO THE GENESIS 1: 1 WHO WAS CREATING – WAS THE FATHER CREATING ANYTHING THROUGH HIS SON OR WAS GOD CREATING?
 

LETS SEE – IN THE BEGINNING “GOD CREATED”  THE HEAVEN & THE EARTH”  = WHERE IN THE WORLD DOES HE MAKE THINGS UP?

THE BIBLE CLEARLY STATES THAT IT WAS GOD WHO CREATED EVERYTHING & NOT THROUGH ANYONE – THIS IS DONE AGAIN SO TO DECEIVE – WOULDN’T YOU SAY
THAT ALSO?

(Hebrews 1:2) Yes, Jesus was God's Son IN HEAVEN before he came to earth. see Proverbs 30:4 TRUE!!

Regarding Jesus' role in creation, Proverbs 8:30,31 tell us: "Then I [Jesus] came to be beside him as a master worker, and I came to be the one he was specially fond of day by day, I being glad before him all the time, being glad at the productive land of his earth, and the things I was fond of were with the sons of men." (more on this verse under its own heading)

THIS IS SO FALSE – THE PROVERBS PASSAGE IS TALKING ABOUT THE “WISDOM” PLEASE READ THE WHOLE CHAPTER & YOU WILL SEE THAT PROVERBS 8 & 9 TALK ABOUT “WISDOM”  & NOT JESUS – UNLESS JESUS WAS A SHE = THEN WE HAVE A PROBLEM DON’T WE??

IN VERSE 1 OF PROV. 8 WE READ: "DOES NOT WISDOM CALL OUT? DOES NOT UNDERSTANDING RAISE "HER" VOICE 2 ON THE HEIGHTS ALONG THE WAY, WHERE THE PATHS MEET, "SHE" TAKES "HER" STAND 3 BESIDE THE GATES LEADING INTO THE CITY, AT THE ENTRANCES, "SHE" CRIES OUT:"

NOTE THAT HERE IT IS TALKING ABOUT "WISDOM" & THE AUTHOR CALLS WISDOM "HER" & "SHE" !!

WHEN WAS JESUS A HER & SHE??

Thus, as other verses like John 1:3 bring out: "All things came into existence through him" (Jesus). Thus, Jesus was with his Father Jehovah at the creation, as his SON in heaven. (Hebrews 1:2)
 

Another verse trinitarians use that is similar to the above is found at Psalms 110:1. There we read: "The utterance of Jehovah to my Lord is: "Sit at my right hand Until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet." This verse is interesting because unless you use the NWT (as above) [NOTE HERE – THAT THE ONLY WAY THAT THE AUTHOR CAN COME UP WITH HIS ASSUMPTIONS – IS BY THE USE OF NWT] Read under which bible for more info on this) the verse reads "My LORD says unto my Lord." Thus, trinitarians confuse the two "Lords," and conclude that two persons of the triune God are speaking to one another. Is this the case? Does this verse prove that the only true God is 3 persons?

WHAT IT DOES SAY IS THAT THERE ARE 2 PERSONS – FATHER TALKING TO HIS SON – FATHER GIVES SON THE SAME EQUALITY AS HIMSELF BY CALLING HIS SON “LORD” – BUT WT & THIS AUTHOR MAKE IT MEAN SOMETHING ELSE – SO TO SUITE THEIR OWN TEACHINGS & DECEPTIONS.

THIS VERSE AS IT IS IN NIV: "THE  LORD SAYS TO MY LORD: 'SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND UNTIL I MAKE YOUR ENEMIES A FOOTSTOOL FOR YOUR FEET."

KJV RENDERS IT LIKE THIS: "THE LORD SAID UNTO MY LORD, SIT THOU AT MY RIGHT HAND, UNTIL I MAKE THINE ENEMIES THEY FOOTSTOOL."

DO YOU SEE THE BIG DIFFERENCE HERE?? TWO PERSONS INVOLVED!!

Well, as indicated above, the NWT translation of this verse, settles this question rather quickly. The facts are, that in the original Hebrew text of this verse at Psalms 110:1, the divine name of God, YHWH, called the Tetragrammaton, is used once. The NIV, KJ, RSV and others, do not translate God's personal name, (due in part, to superstition involving the use of the name, as indicated in a number of forwards of the individual translations), as Jehovah, but rather as LORD, (in small capital letters). Thus because of this, confusion is caused as we can see by the trinitarian reasoning on the verse in question. The Hebrew word PROPERLY translated "Lord," is "adhonai." The word "adhonai" appears once as well in this verse. Therefore, if we were to simply substitute the words "Lord" as they appear in this verse in the KJ, NIV, and others, with the actual Hebrew words, we would read a clearer translation of the verse. It would be: "The utterance of YHWH to my adhonai is....."

 IF WE DO AS THE WRITER STATES:

THEN THE VERSE WOULD READ “YHWH TO MY YHWH”

MORE TO THE POINT - THEN MATTHEW 3:3 MUST BE ALSO CONSIDERED WHERE JOHN THE BAPTIST IS PREPARING THE W AY FOR JEHOVAH.   WHO DID JOHN THE BAPTIST PREPARE THE W AY FOR?? JESUS RIGHT!!

THEN WE ALSO MUST TAKE IN TO ACCOUNT PARALLEL PASSAGES IN ISAIAH 40:3 & 10 - THIS AUTHOR CAN NOT HAVE IT BOTH WAYS - IT IS EITHER ONE OR THE OTHER & NOT AS HE PLEASES!!

 Therefore, the more accurate rendering of this verse into the English would be just as the NWT reads: "The
utterance of Jehovah to my Lord is."

SO TO DECEIVE THE READER & DENY THE SON FULL GLORY & WORSHIP THAT IS DUE TO HIM ) JOHN 5:22-23).

THE MORE ACCURATE RENDERING IS "THE YHWH SAID TO MY YHWH" - AS THIS IS HOW IT APPEARS IN THE ORIGINAL!!

When we translate the verse in this more accurate way, we find no confusion at all. But simply Jehovah God speaking to his Son, Jesus, (David's Lord) in heaven prior to his descending to earth.

I SAID THAT THE FATHER IS SPEAKING TO THE SON – WHO IS GIVING HIS SON THE FULL HONOR – WHICH THE WT & THIS AUTHOR DENY HIM.

WHO DO WE BELIEVE – FATHER OR THE WT?  I SAY THE FATHER -

 We therefore must conclude, that when we read in Genesis 1:26 the phrase, "Let us...," we are given a glimpse into times past, when Jehovah God spoke directly to his Son, Jesus, the Master Worker, the one "through whom," God made the system of things. Simple.

AND IT GIVE US TWO PERSONS – THEN ADD THE SPIRIT OF GOD IN VERSE 2 & YOU HAVE 3 PERSONS – SO SIMPLE ISN’T IT?

MAY I SAY THAT THE AUTHOR LEFT OUT GENESIS 2:7 FROM HIS NWT – LETS SEE WHAT IT SAYS – YOU WILL FIND THIS VERY INTERESTING FOLKS –

“AND ‘JEHOVAH GOD’ PROCEEDED TO “FORM” THE MAN OUT OF DUST FROM THE GROUND & TO BLOW INTO HIS NOSTRILS THE BREATH OF LIFE, & MAN CAME TO BE  A LIVING SOUL”

NOTE THAT IT WAS JEHOVAH GOD WHO PROCEEDED TO FORM MAN & NOT THROUGH ANYONE- OK!!

JEHOVAH GOD WAS THE ONE WHO MADE MAN - HE DIDN'T MAKE MAN THROUGH ANYONE - BUT HE MAD MAN HIMSELF!!

Folks don’t you find this interesting – The author of the above passage states that Jesus was the creator & NWT says that it was Jehovah - - So what does that make Jesus? AS He is the one that Created EVERYTHING?

"And Jehovah God went on to say: "Here the man has become like one of us in knowing good  and bad, and now in order that he may not put his hand out and actually take [fruit] also from the tree of life and eat and live to time indefinite."

I WINDER WHY THE AUTHOR DIDN'T COMMENT ON GENESIS 2:7??

Same line of reasoning used in Gen. 1:26 above. Again here we find Jehovah speaking to his Son, Jesus in Heaven.
Another similar verse is found at Isaiah 6:8, where Jehovah speaks to his Son in heaven.

 "Afterward Jehovah appeared to him among the big trees of Mam're, while he was sitting at the  entrance of the tent about the heat of the day. When he raised his eyes, then he looked and there  three men were standing some distance from him. When he caught sight of them he began running   to meet them from the entrance of the tent and proceeded to bow down to the earth. Then he   said: "Jehovah, if, now, I have found favor in your eyes, please do not pass by your servant."

Some here say that this is Jehovah showing himself as three persons.

Let us start off by saying that this would be impossible based on to John’s recorded words at John 1:18: "No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him."

Thus, if these three WERE indeed a materialized Jehovah, this verse at John 1:18 would be invalid.

YES THIS IS INTERESTING COMPARISON INDEED – NOT LETS STOP & THINK FOR A MINUTE  - THE AUTHOR LEAVES ONE SCRIPTURE OUT IN THIS COMPARISON & THAT

IS JOHN 6:46 – HERE JESUS STATES THAT “NO ONE HAS SEEN THE FATHER NOR  "SEEN” HIS FORM” –

 WELL THEN – IF NO ONE HAS SEEN NOR HEARD THE FATHER –

THEN WHO IS THE PERSON OF THE OT – THAT JEWISH PROPHETS WERE QUOTING & THE WT & NWT SAY THAT IS “JEHOVAH”  - IT IS JESUS – ISN’T IT ??

IT CAN NOT BE ANYONE ELSE – AS NO ONE HAS SEEN NOR HEARD THE FATHER – SO WHO DID THEY SEE & HEAR??  THINK VERY HARD ABOUT THIS ONE FOLKS & THEN ASK HOLY SPIRIT TO GET YOU OUT OF WT CLUTCHES.

 But a further study of the chapter tells us just who these three were. Starting with verse 22 of the same chapter in Genesis we read: "At this point the men turned from there and got on their way to Sod'om; but as for Jehovah, he was still standing before
Abraham."

I ASK YOU – WHO WAS STANDING WITH ABRAHAM?

NO ONE HAS SEEN NOR HEARD THE FATHER!!
 Jesus RIGHT !!!

REMEMBER NO ONE HAS SEEN NOR HEARD THE FATHER – SO THE ONLY ONE THAT COULD BE WITH THE ABRAHAM IS JESUS!!!!

 So we see that these three were MEN, that represented Jehovah. One of them stayed with Abraham, and the other two left. But were they just ordinary men? Please read Genesis 19:1 for their true identity: "Now the two angels arrived at Sod'om by evening, and Lot was sitting in the gate of Sod'om. When Lot caught sight of them, then he got up to meet them and bowed
down with his face to the earth."

Thus these three were materialized ANGELS, that came as Jehovah's representatives. This is similar to the event that occurred at Jesus’ birth in Luke 2:9,10,15: "And suddenly Jehovah's angel stood by them, and Jehovah's glory gleamed around them, and they became very fearful. But the angel said to them: "Have no fear, for, look! I am declaring to YOU good news of
a great joy that all the people will have, So when the angels had departed from them into heaven, the shepherds began saying to one another: "Let us by all means go clear to Beth'le·hem and see this thing that has taken place, which Jehovah has made known to us."

Notice that the angels HAD Jehovah's Glory, and spoke for Jehovah as his representatives, as proven by the words the people spoke who witnessed these angels in verse 15: "see this thing that has taken place, which Jehovah has made known to us." Who literally made it known to the shepherds? Jehovah himself? NO! It was the angels! So then, are we to conclude that the
angels WERE Jehovah? NO! The angels were used by Jehovah as his representatives just as in the Genesis account when they spoke to Abraham and Lot.

SORRY FOLKS - BUT GEN. 18: 1 STATES THAT "JEHOVAH APPEARED" TO ABRAHAM.

THIS IS SO ANNOYING - THE AUTHOR SIMPLY GLANCES AT THE PASSAGE & THE DISAPPEARS FROM IT LIKE IT WASN'T THERE.

NWT CLEARLY STATES THAT IT WAS "JEHOVAH" WHO APPEARED TO ABRAHAM - ALSO LETS TAKE A LOOK VERSE 3 THEN HE SAID: 'JEHOVAH,"  IF, I HAVE FOUND FAVOUR... etc."

IT IS JEHOVAH THAT ABRAHAM ADDRESSES.

VERSE 20 " CONSEQUENTLY JEHOVAH SAID " THE OUTCRY OF COMPLAINT ABOUT SODOM... etc"

verse 22B " .. AS FOR JEHOVAH, HE WAS STILL STANDING BEFORE ABRAHAM."  VERSE 33" THEN JEHOVAH WENT HIS WAY WHEN HE HAD FINISHED SPEAKING TO ABRAHAM,... etc""

THIS AUTHOR CAN NOT HAVE IT BOTH WAYS - THE NWT IS THE BEST THING OUT SINCE SLICED BREAD OR IT IS TELLING US A LIE??

IT IS EITHER JEHOVAH STANDING & TALKING TO ABRAHAM OR IT IS NOT!!!

NWT CLEARLY STATES THAT IT IS JEHOVAH - SO WHY IS THIS AUTHOR TELLING US THAT IT IS NOT??

DID GB TRANSLATING COMMITTEE MISTRANSLATE THE HEBREW & NOT THIS AUTHOR IS SETTING THEM STRAIGHT - OR JUST PLAYING WITH OUR MIND??

YOU MAKE YOUR OWN MIND UP - BUT NWT CLEARLY STATES THAT NO ONE HAS SEEN NOR HEARD THE FATHER - BUT IN GENESIS WE READ THAT FATHER WAS SPEAKING TO ABRAHAM!!!

"Then Jehovah made it rain sulphur and fire from Jehovah, from the heavens, upon Sod'om and upon Go·mor'rah.

"WHO MADE IT RAIN "- ???

FOLKS PLEASE READ THIS PASSAGE VERY CAREFULLY AGAIN – WHAT CAN YOU SEE HERE ???

FROM WHO DID JEHOVAH RAIN SULPHUR ?? THE ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED FOR YOU!!

JEHOVAH WAS WITH ABRAHAM & JEHOVAH MADE IT RAIN FROM HEAVEN – THIS IS NWT PASSAGE – ALSO REMEMBER THAT NO ONE HAS SEEN NOR HEARD THE FATHER – NOW WE READ THAT IT WAS  JEHOVAH WHO WAS WITH ABRAHAM & JEHOVAH RAINED SULPHUR  FROM HEAVENS – YOU CAN COMPARE ANY BIBLE (NIV – KJV )

THEY ALL SAY THE SAME THING –

 DEAR FRIENDS AS YOU CAN SEE THIS AUTHOR CAN NOT SEE PAST WHAT HE IS WRITING - & THEN HE GOES ON & TRIES TO SHOW GOD’S WORD TO BE FALSE & WT IS CORRECT

WHEN PERSON DOES NOT HAVE THE HOLY SPIRIT I THEIR HEART HE WILL ALWAYS COME SUCK –AS HE / SHE IS DOING IT FROM THE HUMAN PERSPECTIVE & NOT GOD’S PERSPECTIVE.

 This verse has caused some to conclude that Jehovah is here revealed as three persons. First off, the name Jehovah (YHWH) only occurs twice in this verse. So at best, we get a "duo-nity", but hardly a "trinity"

NOW THE AUTHOR CONCURS THAT THERE ARE TWO JEHOVAH'S {composite unity} – THAT AUTOMATICALLY MAKES JESUS AS JEHOVAH – THERE IS NO NEED TO GO ON – BUT WE HAVE TO – SO TO SHOW HOW DEVIL WORKS & TRIES TO DECEIVE PEOPLE, BUT ALWAYS GETS STUCK – BLESSED BE OUR CREATOR – JESUS CHRIST.

 But what of the sentence structure? Does this mean Jehovah is revealed as TWO persons? Let's consider other examples of similar sentence structures for a better understanding:

 NOW HE TURNS TO DISPROVE HIS OWN WORDS ALSO – INTERESTING ISN’T IT ??

1 Sam. 20:12,13 says: "And Jon'a·than went on to say to David: "Jehovah the God of Israel [be a witness] that I shall sound out my father about this time tomorrow, or the third day, and if he is well-disposed toward David, shall I not then send to you and certainly disclose it to your ear? So may Jehovah do to Jon'a·than and so may he add to it, if, in case it should seem good to my father to do evil against you, I do not indeed disclose it to your ear and send you away, and you do not certainly go in peace. And may Jehovah prove to be with you, just as he proved to be with my father."

THIS PASSAGE HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH THE SUBJECT!! BUT TO CONFUSE AGAIN!!

Notice verse 13 where we read what Jonathan, who was speaking, said. Jonathan said "So may Jehovah do to Jonathan and so may he add to it." How many "Jonathan's" were there? One! Yet, the sentence structure makes it seems as if there was more than one Jonathan! This is because Jonathan, was speaking in the third person.

 FOLKS THIS IS SO IMPORTANT – I WILL USE “NIV” TO SHOW YOU HOW WT, HAS DISTORTED THE ENTIRE PASSAGE – BUT PLEASE READ THE KJV ALSO – JUST AS A BACK UP –

“THEN JONATHAN SAID TO DAVID: ‘BY THE L LORD, THE GOD OF ISRAEL, I WILL SURELY SOUND OUT MY FATHER BY THIS TIME THE DAY AFTER TOMORROW! IF HE IS FAVOURABLY DISPOSED TOWARD YOU, WILL I NOT SEND YOU WORD AND LET
YOU KNOW? 13 – BUT IF MY FATHER IS INCLINED TO HARM YOU, MAY THE LORD DEAL WITH ME, BE IT EVER SO SEVERELY, IF I DO NOT LET YOU KNOW AND SEND YOU AWAY SAFELY. MAY THE LORD BE WITH YOU AS HE HAS BEEN WITH MY FATHER. (quote closes after the verse 15 please read on)"

 CAN ANY OF YOU “MAKE UP” THE STUFF THAT THE AUTHOR HAS MADE UP??

 Notice Jesus' own words at Luke 9:26 where we read: "For whoever becomes ashamed of me and of my words, the Son of man will be ashamed of this one when he arrives in his glory and that of the Father and of the holy angels."

Here Jesus, the Son of Man, is speaking. Yet he also speaks of himself in the third person. ("For who ever becomes ashamed of "me" (Jesus), the Son of Man (Jesus) will be ashamed of……") How many Jesus’ are there?

 FOLKS “ME” IS NOT THIRD PERSON – IF JESUS WAS TALKING 3rd  PERSON  - HE WOULD HAVE SAID – WHO EVER IS SHAMED OF “MY” FATHER –

BUT JESUS IS TALKING ABOUT “HIMSELF” - THEREFORE  MAKING IT FIRST PERSON –

 Jesus   IS SAYING – WHO EVER IS ASHAMED OF “HIS” WORDS & “HIS” DEEDS WHILE ON THIS EARTH

I ASK YOU ALL – HOW CAN ANYONE  MAKE SUCH A STATEMENT – EXCEPT THE ONE WHO IS TRYING TO DECEIVE???

THIS IS BLUNT - BUT HOW ELSE CAN I SAY IT??  DECEPTION IS DECEPTION NO MATTER HOW WE LOOK AT IT!!

Thus the Genesis account merely is a sentence structure that emphasizes the mighty destructive act of Jehovah against Sodom and Go·mor'rah.

DOES IT REALLY?? OR IS IT GIVING  US A BIGGER PICTURE THAT WT & THIS AUTHOR TRY TO HIDE??

PLEASE ALLOW THE HOLY SPIRIT TO GUIDE YOU & YOU WILL NOT BE LED ASTRAY FROM GODS WORD??

MAY GOD BLESS YOU IN YOUR SEARCH IN JESUS NAME!!