Some notes and comments on various Biblical texts some have used to promote the doctrine of the Trinity. The main approach that will be used to arrive at a proper balanced view of these texts is based on the FACT that the Bible interprets itself.

"He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All [other] things have been created through him and for him. Also, he is before all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to exist, and he is the head of the body, the congregation. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that he might become the one who is first in all things."

PLEASE NOTE THE WORD {OTHER} IT IS INSERTED BY WT TRANSLATING COMMITTEE – AS IT DOES NOT APPEAR IN “ORIGINAL GREEK TEXT.

LET’S SEE HOW THIS PASSAGE IS RENDERED IN NIV: TITLED “SUPREMACY OF CHRIST”

“HE IS THE INVISIBLE GOD, THE FIRST BORN OF ALL CREATION.

16 FOR “BY” HIM “ALL” THINGS WERE CREATED:THINGS IN HEAVEN AND ON EARTH, VISIBLE AND INVISIBLE, WHETHER THRONES OR POWERS OR RULERS OR AUTHORITIES; “ALL
THINGS” WERE CREATED “BY HIM” & FOR HIM.

17 HE IS BEFORE ALL THINGS, AND IN HIM ALL THINGS HOLD TOGETHER

18 AND HE IS THE HEAD OF THE BODY, THE CHURCH; HE IS THE BEGINNING AND THE FIRSTBORN FROM AMONG THE DEAD, SOTHAT IN EVERYTHING HE MIGHT HAVE THE SUPREMACY.

19FOR GOD WAS PLEASEDTO HAVE ALL HIS FULLNESS DWELL IN HIM,

20 AND THROUGH HIM TO RECONCILE TO HIMSELF ALL THINGS, WHETHER THINGS ON EARTH OR THINGS IN HEAVEN, BYMAKING PEACE THROUGH HIS BLOOD, SHED ON THE CROSS.”

These verses have caused some to conclude that Jesus is God, because trinitarians feel that these verses are teaching us the following:

GOD TELLS US IN HIS WORD. DO WE QUESTION GOD EVERY TIME WE DO NOT AGREE WITH WHAT HE IS SAYING? NO WE DO NOT, WE ACCEPT HIS WORD BY “FAITH” & LISTEN TO HIM. AS USUAL GOD DOES NOT KNOW WHAT HE IS SAYING SO WE HAVE TO TELL HIM.

1. Jesus is called the firstborn, meaning that he is the "pre-eminent one" who is over all creation, but not a member of creation.Sorry folks  - BUT JESUS IS THE ONE WHO CREATED EVERYTHING & NOT A MEMBER OF CREATION. Anyway - IF Jesus was to have cretaed ONLY Other things then According to Jeremiah's words in Jer. 10: 10- 12 Jesus would PERISH - you see Jehovah is telling us in Jeremiahs passage that IT WAS JEHOVAH who created Heavens & Earth & IF any god didn't create it then HE WOULD PERISH - So by those words alone we are in big trouble if Jesus ONLY created Trees - Birds - Animals - humans  & Angels - He would perish as He didn't create Heaven & Earth. HMMMMMMM

2. Jesus is the one who created all things. Yet the NWT inserts the word [other] into the text. Trinitarians say that by doing so, this detracts from Paul's claim that Jesus is the creator of ALL things, which ultimately detracts from Jesus' glory and puts Jesus into the class of created beings! COULDN'T HAVE SAID IT BETTER MYSELF.

REVELATION 22:18b JESUS TELLS US. “AND IF “ANYONE ADDS ANYTHING TO THEM {HIS WORDS} GOD WILL ADD TO HIM THE PLAGUES DESCRIBED IN THIS BOOK.”

I KEEP SAYING IT – “IT IS A HEALTH HAZARD TO ADD OR TAKE AWAY FROM GOD’S WORD,” BUT SOME WILL NOT LEARN. THEY ADD TO HIS WORD & THEN THEY SAY THAT IT IS OK. HMMMMMMM.

WE MUST ASK OURSELVES WHY ‘OTHER’ WAS ADDED? HOW WOULD IT READ IF THE WORD WASN’T THERE?

IF WE LEAVE THE WORD ‘OTHER’ FROM THE NWT TEXT THEN IT READS LIKE THIS:

‘BECAUSE BY MEANS OF HIM ALL THINGS WERE CREATED.

ALL THINGS THAT WOULD MEAN ANGELS TOO, WOULDN’T IT? HOW COULD HE CREATE HIMSELF??

SO HAS THE WORD ‘OTHER’ BEEN ADDED TO CHANGE THE VERSE TO SUIT WT TEACHING?NOTE THAT ‘OTHER’ DOES NOT APPEAR IN THE GREEK TEXT IN THE KIT.

Is Jesus Jehovah? Are the above thoughts correct?

WE WOULD THINK THAT GOD WOULD KNOW WHAT HE IS SAYING! WOULDN’T WE? JESUS IS A SEPARATE ‘PERSON’ FROM THE FATHER, BUT THEY HAVE THE SAME DIVINE NATURE. THEY HAVE THE SAME DIVINE NAME ALSO- SEE JOHN 17: 11-12.
THEY HAVE THE SAME GOD LIKE NATURE.

First, we do well to look at the context of Paul's words in order to arrive at a proper understanding. Starting from Colossians 1:12 and leading up to and including verse 15, we read: "thanking the Father who rendered YOU suitable for YOUR participation in the inheritance of the holy ones in the light. He delivered us from the authority of the darkness and transferred us into the kingdom of the Son of his love, by means of whom we have our release by ransom, the forgiveness of our sins. He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation."

NIV HAS THESE VERSES RENDERED AS THIS:

“GIVING THANKS TO THE FATHER, WHO HAS QUALIFIED YOU TO SHARE IN THE “INHERITANCE” OF THE SAINTS IN THE KINGDOM OF LIGHT. 13 FOR HE HAS RESCUED US FROM THE DOMINION OF  DARKNESS AND BROUGHT US INTO THE KINGDOM OF THE SON HE LOVES, 14 IN WHOM WE HAVE REDEMPTION, THE FORGIVENESS OF SINS.”

DO YOU GET THE FEELING THAT THERE ARE TWO COMPLETE DIFFERENT BIBLES HERE? I DO!

LIKE THE GREEK LANGUAGE HAS TOTALLY DIFFERENT MEANING FROM ONE READER TO ANOTHER. HMMMMM.

> From these verses we can see that it is the Father who is responsible for the disciples coming under the ruler ship or kingdom of Jesus, the "Son of his [the Father's] love." This, of course, leads to their forgiveness of sins and eventually to their everlasting life in heaven. So the context here is speaking about the Father, and his accomplishments toward the anointed congregation.

IN THE VERSES 12 TO 14 THERE IS ONE CONTRAST – BUT IN THE VERSES 15-20 FATHER TELLS US ANOTHER STORY & THAT IS THATJESUS IS “ALMIGHTY CREATOR OF EVERYTHING IN HEAVEN & EARTH.”

Paul goes on to tell us something about this "Son of his [the Father's] love." He tells us in verse 15 that Jesus is the image (Greek: eikon) of the invisible God, the firstborn of all (Greek: prototokos passes) creation (Greek: ktiseos). Let's look at each of these two descriptions of Jesus, before we move to verse 16.

NOTE FIRST OF THAT: JESUS IS THE "IMAGE" OF INVISIBLE GOD!! FOR YOU TO BE IMAGE OF YOUR SELF - THEN YOU MUST BE THERE - OTHERWISE IT ISN'T YOU. SAME APPLIES TO GOD - JESUS THE IMAGE OF GOD - MEANING THAT JESUS IS GOD!!

1. Jesus is the image (eikon) of the invisible God. The word eikon means: "reflection, likeness, image." It is closely related to the word character, of Hebrews 1:3 which means "to bear the imprint of the stamp." It is NOT the stamp, but rather the "vessel," or "seal of clay" which bears the imprint. (See comments on John 17:3 for further details) Thus Paul is bringing to our attention, that Jesus is NOT the original, but rather a copy, reflection, or likeness, of the invisible God. He is NOT the invisible God, he is the invisible God's reflection. We might liken it to looking into a mirror. When you look into a mirror, you see your reflection or a copy of yourself. No one in their right mind would say that the actual reflection in the mirror is "literally" you, would they?

ARE YOU OF THE RIGHT FRAME OF MIND & THEN GO & SAY THAT IT ISN'T YOU?? CURIOUS HERE!!

SORRY FOLKS – BUT IF IT ISN’T YOU THEN WE HAVE A PROBLEM DON’T WE?

IT MUST BE A “DUMMY” THAT IS SMILING BACK AT YOU. Grin.

Lets get real here – the IMAGE IN THE MIRROR THAT IS BEING REFLECTED IS YOU WITH ALL THE LITTLE IMPERFECTIONS. IF IT IS NOT YOU THEN IT MUST BE SOMEONE ELSE.LIKE A GHOST!!

No, because you are the one looking into the mirror. What is coming from the mirror is your reflection.

OOOPPPSSS  IT IS YOU AFTER ALL. WOULDN’T BE NICE IF WE COULD MAKE UP OUR MIND?  NOTE THE HIGHLIGHTED SENTENCE ABOVE. IN THE FIRST PLACE IT WASN'T YOU & NOW IT IS - HMMMMMM!!

The same is true with Jesus. He is NOT the invisible God, but he is the reflection, or copy of, the invisible God. Jesus, then, is the reflection or image, NOT the Source. Thus Jesus is NOT God.
 NOT AT ALL –THE PASSAGE TELLS US THAT  Jesus IS THE IMAGE OF INVISIBLEGOD.
WHAT THIS MEANS IS THIS. IF WE COULD SEE THE “INVISIBLE GOD” AS WE SEE EACH OTHER THEN GOD WOULD BE IN THE “EXACT LIKENESS AS JESUS IS IN HIS HUMAN FORM.”

 JUST AS YOU SEE YOUR SELF & NO ONE ELSE WHEN YOU LOOK IN THE MIRROR.
Jesus ISTHE SAME REFLECTION OF GOD IN HUMAN FORM.
  2. Jesus is the "firstborn of" creation. Now some say, "Well the word firstborn, as used in the Bible, does not always literally mean the first one that was born or created," and this is true, in part. For David was called "my firstborn" by Jehovah at Psalms 89:27. Yet David was not literally the firstborn of Jesse's family; he actually was the last one born. So in what sense could he be called Jehovah's firstborn? The term firstborn here refers to the pre-eminent position of ruler ship and the covenant for a kingdom that he would be given,  to sit on Jehovah's throne, as the firstborn of those that would come from his family line. This scripture was fulfilled prophetically in Jesus, [not true] who would be from royal line of David as John 7:42 explains: "Has not the Scripture said that the Christ is coming from the offspring of David, and from Beth'le·hem the village where David used to be?"

THE ABOVE PASSAGE IS TALKING ABOUT DAVID & NOT JESUS!  THE AUTHOR TAKES THIS PASSAGE COMPLETELY OUT OF CONTEXT SO TO "MAKE" SOMETHING THAT ISN'T THERE.

Now because of this, some conclude that the word "firstborn," as translated here in Colossians 1:15, shows the role of "pre-eminence" that Jesus would have over creation. Does this line of reasoning apply to what Paul said here about Jesus at Colossians 1:15? The answer is NO!

THE ONLY REASON THAT THIS AUTHOR SAYS NO – IS =  BECAUSE IF JESUS WAS THE “PRE-EMINENT ONE” THEN THE WT TEACHING & THIS AUTHOR’S REASONING GOES DOWN THE SHOOT. THEY WOULD HAVE TO AGREE WITH GOD’S WORDS & THAT CAN NOT BE AS IT WOULD FOIL THEIR TEACHING.

YES, JESUS IS THE “PRE-EMINENT ONE” OF ALL CREATION.

JUST CHECK THIS PASSAGE WITH GENESIS ONE. JESUS CREATED “EVERYTHING IN HEAVEN & EARTH” & GENESIS ONE TELLS US THAT “GOD” CREATED “EVERYTHING IN HEAVEN & EARTH.”

THIS IS TELLING US THAT JESUS IS ONE & THE SAME GOD IN NT. AND THE OT.

REMEMBER THE NWT TELL US THAT AND I QUOTE:” ALL THINGS CAME INTO EXISTENCE THROUGH HIM AND APART FROM HIM NOT EVEN ONE THING CAME INTO EXISTENCE. JOHN 1:3.  THEY ARE TALKING ABOUT THE WORD (LOGOS) AND WHO IS LOGOS – JESUS.

REMEMBER NO ONE HAS SEEN NO HEARD THE FATHER EXCEPT THE SON WHOM HE SENT. JOHN 5:37-38.

Now, I am going to say this BOLDLY so we can all get the point. The term that Paul used of Jesus here was not the word "firstborn" by itself, like at Psalms 89:27. It was the words "firstborn of."

[THAT’S NOT ALL THAT HE IS – GOD TELLS US THAT JESUS IS FIRST BORN “OVER ALL  CREATION” OR AS KJV HAS IT FIRST BORN OF EVERY CREATURE. WHAT THIS MEANS IS THIS.

IN THE BIBLE TERMS &  FROM GREEK LANGUAGE THIS WORD MEANS “BEFORE “ANY” CREATURE WAS MADE & NOT THAT HE IS THE CREATURE BEING MADE.”

THIS IS SCRIPTURES WAY OF “REPRESENTING ETERNITY.” IT SIGNIFIES HIS DOMINION OVER ALL THINGS].

Now, with this being said, what is the import? The term "firstborn of" occurs in the Bible 34 times (not including Colossians 1:15). And every single instance of its use, shows that the one being spoken of (the subject) is in the class or group of those mentioned. Let us look at a few examples of this. At Exodus 11:5 we read: "...from the firstborn of Pharaoh who is sitting on his throne to the firstborn of the maidservant who is at the hand mill and every firstborn of beast."

Here we see that those called "firstborn" are members of the class, or group next mentioned, i.e.: "the firstborn of  Phar'aoh,"....was of the house of Pharaoh....."the firstborn of the maidservant,"......was a slave, or of the maidservant....."the "firstborn of beast,".....was a beast. Thus all of these referred to as "firstborn of" were all members of the class or group mentioned in the text.

Does this then mean, as some have said, that Jesus should have been called the firstborn of Jehovah? For if he is the firstborn of creation, are we to conclude that "creation parented Jesus," because Pharaoh "parented his firstborn?

WELL FOLKS – GOD THE FATHER DID NOT “PARENT” HIS SON AS PHARAOH PARENTED HIS SON.

WE ARE COMPARING GOD’S CHOSEN TO HUMAN FLESH, COMPLETELY TWO DIFFERENT THINGS.

JOSEPH AND MARY ‘PARENTED’ THE BABY JESUS AND RAISED HIM TO ADULTHOOD.

ALSO WE MUST CONSIDER THAT JESUS IS THE “PRE-EMINENT  ONE” & PHARAOH'S SON IS “LITERALLY” FIRST SON BORN TO HIM.

FROM HISTORY WE KNOW THAT THIS IN EFFECT WAS HIS “FIRST” CHILD ALSO, BUT WE DO NOT KNOW THAT EVERY MAIDSERVANTS “FIRST BORN SON” WAS HER FIRST-BORN “CHILD.” DO WE? NO WE DO NOT.

MAIDSERVANT MIGHT HAVE HAD A DAUGHTER FIRST BUT THE CHOSEN ONE TO DIE WAS THE FIRST-BORN SON.

THAT IS WHY GOD EXPLICITLY SAID “FIRST BORN SON.”  THIS AGAIN WAS THE CHOOSING OF GOD TOWARDS THE FIRST-BORN HEIR TO THE FAMILY THRONE AFTER THE DEATH OF THE FATHER.

I KEEP SAYING, PLEASE READ THE PASSAGES IN CONTEXT & UNDERSTANDING OF WHAT IS BEING SAID. THAT IS WHY I HAVE GONE TO GREAT LENGTHS TO ELABORATE ON EVERY STATEMENT IN OUR PAGES.

Well what did Paul say? He called Jesus "prototokos passes ktiseos," "the firstborn of all creation." Paul wrote these inspired words in the grammatical case which is called the partitive genitive. A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament on page 79, indicates "a noun [in the case of Colossians 1:15, this would be prototokos or firstborn] may be defined, by indicating in the genitive [in Colossians 1:15, this would be passes ktiseos or of all creation] the whole [creation] of which it [firstborn] is a part." Thus, according to Thayer's Greek Lexicon on page 555, " [Jesus]....came into being through God prior to the entire universe of created things."

NOT AT ALL – AGAIN WE ARE MAKING THINGS UP TO SUITE OUR REASONING & NOT WHAT IS “MEANT.”

THE WORDS USED IN COLOSSIANS 1:15 LITERALLY MEAN JESUS “ETERNAL RELATIONSHIP” WITH HIS FATHER. THE “CLAUSE” MEANS “BOTH” THAT HE WAS THE “FIRST BORN OVER  ALL” CREATION MEANING  THAT HE “PRODUCED” THE CREATION.

IF IT DID NOT THEN THE “ENTIRE” BIBLE IS COMPLETE LIE.
 

WE KNOW THAT GOD DOES NOT LIE NOR DECEIVE THAT IS DEVILS JOB.  WHEN WE COMPARE THIS PASSAGE TO JOHN 1:1- 3 & GENESIS 1& 2 WE SEE THAT JESUS WAS THERE IN THE BEGINNING CREATING “EVERYTHING.

NOTE THAT IN GENESIS 1: 1 IT STATES THAT “IN THE BEGINNING “GOD CREATED” HEAVENS & THE EARTH.” EVEN ANGELS WERE THERE, AS NOWHERE IN THE BIBLE IS IT STATED THAT GOD CREATED THEM AFTER HE STARTED TO CREATE THE UNIVERSE & EVERYTHING IN IT.

Thus this term, "firstborn of," is not speaking about the parent of the subject, but rather, it is pointing to the group or class to which the subject belongs!

OR CHOSEN BY GOD TO BE HIS LEADER – SPOKES PERSON. THE PRE-EMINENCE OF POWER, AUTHORITY, CHOOSING.

WHEN GOD TELLS US THAT HIS SON WAS CREATING THINGS IN THE BEGINNING – HE  IS NOT TELLING US THAT HE WAS CREATING “HIMSELF,” BUT EVERYTHING ELSE.

Yes, Jesus indeed is in the group of those that were created. (Proverbs 8:22;)

[NO – NO – PROVERBS 8 TALKS ABOUT “WISDOM” & NOT JESUS, UNLESS JESUS WAS
A SHE. John 3:16 NO- NO AGAIN THIS PASSAGE TELLS US “HOW MUCH GOD LOVES US” & NOT ABOUT JESUS BEING CREATED].

However, his creation is very unique as is evident by the expression Paul used, the "firstborn of all creation." What exactly does this tell us?

Let us look to Colossians 1:18, which reads: "and he is the head of the body, the congregation. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that he might become the one who is first in all things."

WE SKIP THE VERSE 16  & GO ELSE WHERE AGAIN HMMMMMM!!

18 “AND HE IS THE HEAD OF THE BODY, THE CHURCH; HE IS THE BEGINNING AND THE “FIRSTBORN FROM AMONG THE DEAD,” SO THAT IN EVERYTHING HE MIGHT HAVE THE SUPREMACY.”

NOTE THE DIFFERENCE IN MEANING FROM NWT TO NIV?

Notice here that Jesus is called the "firstborn from the dead." How can this be true, for did not Jesus and other prophets of God raise persons from the dead? Yes they did! Thus this phrase, as applied to Jesus, tells of the type of resurrection Jesus had. His resurrection had to be unique in order for the term "firstborn from the dead" to be applied to him. But in what way? The Bible tells of two ways Jesus earns the title the "firstborn from the dead."

IN THIS PASSAGE JESUS WAS NOT FIRST RAISED “FROM” THE DEAD, BUT TO JESUSRESURRECTION AS THE “FIRST BORN” TO BE THE HEAD OF THE “CHURCH” –THROUGH JESUS WE ALL ARE GUIDED BY HIS SPIRIT AS HE IS THE GUIDING
SPIRIT OF THE CHURCH.

WITHOUT HIM THE CHURCH (YOU & ME & NOT THE BUILDING ON A STREET BLOCK), CAN NOT THINK THE TRUTH, CANNOT ACT CORRECTLY, CANNOT DECIDE ITS DIRECTION.

JESUS IS THE BEGINNING (FIRST BORN) OF THE CHURCH AS WE KNOW IT TODAY, PRIOR TO JESUS’ COMING ALL THAT WE HAD WAS SACRIFICES FOR ATONEMENT.

NOW WE HAVE HIM WE HAVE THE “SOURCE” OF OUR LIFE. HE IS THE MOVING POWER, WHICH SET THE CHURCH IN OPERATION.

IN OTHER WORDS CHURCH (YOU & ME) IS THE “NEW CREATION" OF CHRIST.

ARE YOU A NEW CREATION OF CHRIST??

WE - BECAUSE OF HIS RESURRECTION  ARE ALIVE WHEN WE DIE. HE IS NOT SOME DEAD HERO or FOUNDER, BUT LIVING PRESENCE.

BY HIS RESURRECTION HE HAS SHOWN THAT HE HAS “CONQUERED EVERY OPPOSING POWER” & THAT THERE IS NOTHING IN LIFE OR IN DEATH WHICH CAN BIND HIM.

HE IS THE LIVING GOD; HE IS THE SOURCE & ORIGIN OF LIFE; HE IS THE SOURCE & ORIGIN OF CHURCH; HE IS THE CONSTANT DIRECTOR OF THE CHURCH; HE IS THE LORD & GOD OF ALL, BY VIRTUE OF HIS VICTORY OVER DEATH. (W. Barclay).

WE ARE DISCUSSING COLOSSIANS 1:16 & AGAIN WE ARE GOING ELSE WHERE!!

First: Galatians 1:1 says: "Paul, an apostle, neither from men nor through a man, but through Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised him up from the dead, Peter said also at Acts 5:30: "The God of our forefathers raised up Jesus, whom YOU slew, hanging him upon a stake."

Yes, it was God the Father himself who resurrected Jesus directly. (See comments on John 2:19, 21, for further proof of this) Remember Jesus' words at John 5:28,29: "Do not marvel at this, because the hour is coming in which all those in the memorial tombs will hear his voice and come out."

Holy Sprit raised Him & Jesus raised Himself also, see Romans 8:11 & John 2:19 & 10:17.

Yes, when the dead are raised in the future, they will be raised because they hear Jesus' voice. (see 1 Thess. 4:16 below) Thus all other resurrections in the future, from the time of Jesus' death on, will be through Jesus Christ. However, the resurrection of Jesus was done directly by the Father. Thus, Jesus rightfully is called the firstborn from the dead in this sense. But let us look at another way Jesus earns the title firstborn from the dead.

SEE LAST COMMENT & 1 THESSALONIANS 4:16 –17 & REVELATION 19:1 & YOU WILL SEE THAT WE ALL WILL BE WITH CHRIST AT OUR DEATH. SEE ALSO LUKE 23:43 WHERE JESUS TELLS THE CRIMINAL ON THE CROSS THAT HE WILL BE IN PARADISE WITH HIM THAT DAY.

Second: Jesus told his disciples that where he would be, they would be also. John 14:3 reads:

THAT IS IN HEAVEN & NOT ON EARTH.

"Also, if I go my way and prepare a place for YOU, I am coming again and will receive YOU home to myself, that where I am YOU also may be." Yes, just as Jesus was resurrected to heaven, his disciples were to be raised with him. Notice that Jesus said "I am coming again and will receive YOU home." Yes, Jesus was the one who would resurrect those that would be with him in heaven. This is brought out clearer in 1 Thessalonians 4:16, which says: "because the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel's voice and with God's trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first."

NOTE HEAVEN & NOT EARTH. NOTE THAT THE WORD ‘LORD’ HERE MEANS ‘JESUS’ COMING AND NOT JEHOVAH. ‘KURIOS’ HERE IS TRANSLATED CORRECTLY AS LORD WHERE IN OTHER VERSES IT HAS BEEN TRANSLATED AS JEHOVAH.

Yes Jesus was the firstborn from the dead to go to heaven. Others would follow. Jesus, as seen by Paul's words above, will descend and the dead will hear his voice, and those that are in union with Jesus (Romans 8:15,16) will be resurrected to heaven. Others, as John 5:28 says, will also be raised by Jesus to a glorious new earth. (Psalms 37:11,29 Matthew 5:5 2 Peter 3:13; Revelation 21:3,4)

NOT TRUE! FIRST OF ALL WE ARE NOT‘IN UNION WITH’ JESUS OR HE ‘IN UNION WITH’ US. JESUS LIVES ‘IN’ US AND WE ‘IN’ HIM. THAT IS WHY WE “MUST” BE BORN AGAIN OF THE SPIRIT, JOHN 3: 3-7; 1 JOHN 5:1; GALATIANS 4: 5 – 7; ROMANS 8: 1-16.

DOES HE LIVE IN YOU & YOU IN HIM??

JOHN 5:28 AS IT APPEARS IN THE NWT TELL US ‘DO NOT MARVEL AT THIS, BECAUSE THE HOUR IN COMING IN WHICH ALL THOSE IN MEMORIAL TOMBS WILL HEAR HIS VOICE.’

IN THE OTHER PASSAGES LIKE MAT 5:5 THAT IS TALKING ABOUT PRESENT DAY PEOPLE WHO ARE MEEK FOR THEY WILL HAVE PEACE WITHIN THEMSELVES. IN OTHER WORDS IT TALKS MAINLY ABOUT THE HUMILITY OF THE PERSON. IT IS A STATE OF MIND, BY NOT WORRYING ABOUT EARTHLY PROBLEMS BUT CONCENTRATING ON THE HEAVEN.

Now in order to fully understand what the apostle Paul meant by the term "firstborn of all creation," we must turn our discussion to Colossians 1:16. Is Jesus the creator of all things and is the insertion of the word [other] proper?

NO IT IS NOT AS WE HAVE SEEN IN REVELATION 22:18-19 IT IS A HEALTH HAZARD.

First, let us notice the end of verse 16. There we read: "All [other] things have been created through him and for him." Notice here that Jesus is the one "through whom all [other] things were created." [TAKE THE WORD OTHER OUT & SEE WHAT YOU HAVE. ALSO SEE YOUR KIT, THE WORD IS NOT IN ORIGINAL GREEK & SEE JOHN 1:3]. The Greek word translated "through" is dia. In this verse, dia means: "denoting the channel of an act, agency, means." Yes, Jesus was the "means through which" creation took place. Notice also that this creation was done "for" him. Who did this "for him?" Paul tell us in Hebrews 1:1,2 : "God, who long ago spoke on many occasions and in many ways to our forefathers by means of the prophets, has at the end of these days spoken to us by means of a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the systems of things."

 THE VERSE 3 STATES:

“THE SON IS THE RADIANCE OF GOD’S GLORY AND THE EXACT  REPRESENTATION OF HIS BEING, “SUSTAINING ALL THINGS BY HIS POWERFUL WORD. AFTER HE HAS PROVIDED PURIFICATION FOR SINS, HE SAT AT THE RIGHT HAND OF THE MAJESTY IN HEAVEN.” IN VERSE 10 “IN THE BEGINNING, O LORD, YOU LAID THE FOUNDATION OF THE EARTH, AND THE HEAVENS ARE THE WORK OF YOUR HANDS.”

FATHER IS SPEAKING ABOUT SON IN VERSES 5-14 PLEASE READ THEM VERY CAREFULLY. PREFERABLY NOT IN NWT, BUT IF YOU MUST – WOULD YOU AT LEAST USE THE “KIT” WITH YOUR READINGS & YOU WILL SEE THAT WORDS AREN'T’ THERE, BUT THEY ARE INSERTED” BY THE GB TRANSLATING BODY.

Yes it was Jesus' own God and Father, Jehovah (Micah 5:4) who made the system of things through his Son, who was with him in heaven! (Proverbs 30:4; 8:22,30; Genesis 1:26)

PLEASE RE –READ THE VERSES CAREFULLY & YOU WILL SEE THAT IT WAS JESUS WHO DID ALL THE CREATING. I THINK WE HAVE COVERED THIS ENOUGH & THERE IS NO NEED TO GO THROUGH ALL THE VERSES AGAIN.

But is it proper to insert the word [other] into the text at Colossians 1:16,17? [NO IT IS A HEALTH HAZARD]. Well, as we have established, it was the Father, Jehovah, that was the author of creation. [NO IT WAS JESUS] Jesus was the Father's means or instrument or channel by which His creation was accomplished. Also, as we have established above, it was the Father who was responsible for the disciples coming under the ruler ship or kingdom of Jesus, the "Son of his [the Father's] love." So the context leading up to Colossians 1:15,16 is dealing with the Father.

NO IT IS NOT – IT DEALS WITH JESUS, BUT IF “YOU” WANT IT TO BE THAT WAY. THEN PLEASE RE READ REVELATION 22:18-19 & SEE IF YOU WANT GOD TO “ADD” OR “TAKE” AWAY AT THE JUDGEMENT DAY. ALSO READ REVELATION 16:13 –14 & SEE WHO WT REPRESENTS & WORKS FOR. THE CHOICE IS YOURS DEAR READER – IT IS EITHER JESUS OR MEN WHO DECEIVE!

Now if we do NOT add the word [other] into the text, what would this mean? Well, if Jesus created ALL THINGS THAT WERE IN HEAVEN" then we would be under obligation to say that Jesus created his Father!

.[NO WE ARE NOT UNDER ANY OBLIGATION, ESPECIALLY THIS ONE. FATHER WAS WITH THE SON WHEN SON WAS CREATING THE HEAVENS & EARTH. THAT IS WHAT THE WORD OF GOD TELLS US].

For the Father most certainly is in heaven! And the context is dealing with the Father sending his Son. Also, the Father most certainly is a "thing." Webster's defines the word "thing" as: "that which is referred to as existing as an individual, an entity, a tangible object, a person." Yes, all things in heaven include the Father, who according to trinitarians IS a person.

[NOT ACCORDING TO TRINITARIANS, BUT ACCORDING TO HIS WORD].

So then, are we to imagine that Jesus created God the Father?

[ONLY IF YOU WISH TO IMAGINE IT. WORD OF GOD TELLS US TO BELIEVE WHAT GOD TELLS US & NOT TO IMAGINE ANYTHING].

NOTE HERE THAT THE FATHER IS A ‘THING’ HERE AND ALSO A ‘PERSON’. AS THE WT CALL THE HOLY SPIRIT A ‘THING’ THEN BY USING THEIR LOGIC THE HOLY SPIRIT MUST ALSO BE A ‘PERSON’.

Well, the Bible teaches that the Father is the King of eternity at 1 Tim. 1:17. So one in this position hardly could be a created being! Thus you ABSOLUTELY NEED to insert the word [other] into the text, [ONLY IF YOU DO NOT LOVE YOUR LIFE. BIBLE TELLS US THAT THIS IS NOT THE DONE THING. SO DO WE ADD ANYTHING AGAINST THE WORD OF GOD? NOT ME!]so as to avoid any confusion on this matter. But this is not the only reason the insertion of the word [other] is appropriate as we will see.

THE ONLY REASON THAT IS APPROPRIATE IS TO CHANGE THE MEANING OF THE GOD’S WORD WHEN IT DOES NOT AGREE WITH YOUR TEACHING, AND FOR NO OTHER REASON.

Pausing for a moment, let us consider what some mistakenly have stated. Some say that Paul could have used another word in this text, if he wanted to say that Jesus was "just a created being." Well, very simply, this is NOT what Paul wanted to say!

[WELL FOLKS – IF PAUL DIDN’T WANT TO SAY IT! THEN WHY ARE THEY PUTTING WORDS INTO HIS MOUTH? ONLY TO CHANGE THE MEANING TO SUIT THEIR OWN TEACHING].

This is NOT the point of the verse. For the thought that Paul was conveying was NOT that Jesus was "just a created being." [JESUS WAS NOT A CREATED BEING THAT’S WHY PAUL DIDN’T TELL US]. Thus, those that make this statement do not even understand the verse in the first place. As Paul revealed in verse 15, Jesus' creation was unique. Paul's thought was that Jehovah directly created his Son Jesus, hence the title "the firstborn of all creation."

[NOW WE ARE DREAMING. IF PAUL WANTED TO TELL US HE WOULD. PAUL WAS INSPIRED BY GOD & GOD KNOWS WHAT HE WANTS TO TELL US & HE DID. SO WHY TELL GOD THAT HE DOES NOT KNOW WHAT HE IS SAYING?]

We see this by John's use of the phrase the "only begotten Son" as in John 3:16. Jesus creation was a distinct type of creation, in that there was NO "channel," or "means by which," the creation of Jesus was accomplished. It was Jehovah's only direct creation. All [other] creations were different types of creations, as they were all done through Jesus as the "channel," or "means by which" these different creations came into being. Yes, these [other] things were all different in that they were creations made THROUGH Jesus. This is why Jesus is called the "prototokos" [firstborn] of all creation, or God's 'monogenes,' his "only begotten."

FIRST OF ALL – JOHN 3:16 TALKS ABOUT GOD’S LOVE FOR HIS CHILDREN.

HE LOVED US  Sooo MUCH THAT HE SENT HIS SON TO REDEEM US FROM SINFUL WAYS OF HUMANS.

SECONDLY - THE WORD ‘PROTOTOKOS’ – REFERS TO “PRE-EMINENCE,” CHOICE, SELECTION AS THE FIRST IN RANK & NOT TO BEING CREATED.

THE QUESTION COMES TO MIND. WHY DIDN’T THE WT INTERPRETING COMMITTEE “INSERT” THE WORD “OTHER” IN JOHN 1:3?  BECAUSE IT SLIPPED THROUGH & THEY DIDN’T PICK IT UP. BUT WHO KNOWS WHAT WILL HAPPEN IN THE NEXT EDITION! IT IS ANY ONES GUESS.

FINALLY - IN JEREMIAH 10:1- 12  WE READ "TELL THEM THIS: 'THESE gods WHO DID NOT MAKE THE HEAVENS AND EARTH, WILL PERISH FROM THE EARTH & FROM UNDER THE HEAVENS. BUT GOD MADE THE EARTH BY HIS POWER; HE FOUNDED THE WORLD BY HIS WISDOM AND STRETCHED  OUT THE HEAVENS BY HIS UNDERSTANDING."

LETS FACE IT - IF JESUS DIDN'T CREATE THE HEAVENS & EARTH AS STATED HERE - THEN HE WILL PERISH * IS FALSE god.

Thus, concerning these [other] things, Jesus is the means by which they came into being from the Father. It is NOT, as again some have mistakenly said, that God created Jesus, and then Jesus created all other things! Let us continue with our discussion.

PLEASE REREAD THE STATEMENT AGAIN & YOU WILL SEE THAT THIS AUTHOR IS MAKING THINGS UP AS HE GOES ALONG. HE JUST SPENT SO MUCH TIME TELLING US THAT JESUS WAS CREATED & NOW HE IS NOT.

To translate the Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek into the English (or any language for that matter) is an awesome task. Bible translation committees have to struggle with the all important task of translating words from one language into another in a way that reflects the full impact, feeling, and flavour, of the original text. They must do this, while being conscience of doing so in a way that would not include any "overly biased views" that ultimately distort the translation.

IF WT INTERPRETING COMMITTEE DID THIS, WE WOULDN’T BE HERE READING THESE WORDS.

Words written in the original languages often are written in specific grammatical cases, or are placed in determined locations in the sentence, all of which indicate the full meaning of the word in the text. [ENGLISH LANGUAGE IS NO DIFFERENT.] However, when you translate them into another language that does not use these different devices to indicate the same meaning, you need to insert words that impart the full flavour and understanding of the original word into the new language you are translating into. NO – NO – NO, WE DO NOT DO THAT AT ALL.

WHAT IS DONE WHEN TRANSLATING ONE LANGUAGE INTO ANOTHER IS THIS.

ONE USES THE RULES OF GRAMMAR FROM BOTH LANGUAGES – THEN THE MEANING OF THE ORIGINAL WRITER IS TAKEN INTO ACCOUNT & THE WORDS ARE  TRANSLATED AS THEY APPEAR, BUT THEY ARE RENDERED ACCORDING TO THE LANGUAGE THAT THEY ARE BEING TRANSLATED INTO.

YES THERE ARE CERTAIN THINGS THAT ARE “UNDERSTOOD” & THUS THEY ARE USED TO MAKE THE MEANING COMPLETE. WHEN THIS IS DONE, THEN THE READER OF THE TEXT CONSIDERS THE UNDERSTANDING OF THE ORIGINAL AUTHOR FOR FURTHER & DEEPER MEANINGS OF THE TEXT. SO THAT THE MESSAGE SENT IS THE SAME AS THE ONE THAT IS RECEIVED. OTHERWISE TRUE COMMUNICATION DIDN’T TAKE PLACE.

Consider Acts 5:24, where we read: "In answer Peter and the [other] apostles said: "We must obey God as ruler rather than men." Now if we did NOT add the word [other] into this text, (as the King James, NIV and others do) then Peter would NOT be considered an apostle! For it would read ".....Peter and the apostles...," thereby excluding Peter from the group of men called the apostles!

SORRY GUYS – BUT THERE IS NO WORD “OTHER” IN THIS TEXT – EVEN IN NWT. I AM NOT SURE WHAT PASSAGE HE IS REFERRING TO, BUT IT IS NOT ACTS 5:24. LET’S FACE IT – THERE WERE “OTHER” APOSTLES APART FROM PETER. SO I SUPPOSE THE WORD “OTHER” WAS REFERRING TO THEM. WE KNOW FROM OTHER VERSES IN THE BIBLE THAT PETER WAS AN APOSTLE. IF WE KNEW WHAT VERSE THE AUTHOR WAS QUOTING WE WOULD LOOK AND SEE WHETHER ‘OTHER’ WAS INSERTED. BECAUSE WE KNOW PETER WAS AN APOSTLE ADDING THE WORD ‘OTHER’ DOESN’T CHANGE THE MEANING OF THE VERSE.

Colossians 1:20 is another example of this. There we read: "and through him to reconcile again to himself all [other] things by making peace through the blood [he shed] on the torture stake, no matter whether they are the things upon the earth or the things in the heavens."

THE NIV & KJV DO NOT HAVE THE WORD “OTHER” IN IT. IT READS LIKE THIS – FROM VERSE 19  “FOR GOD WAS PLEASED TO HAVE ALL HIS FULLNESS DWELL IN HIM,  20 AND THROUGH HIM (JESUS) TO RECONCILE TO HIMSELF “ALL THINGS”, WHETHER THINGS ON EARTH OR THINGS IN HEAVEN, BY MAKING PEACE THROUGH HIS BLOOD, SHED ON THE CROSS.”

AS YOU CAN SEE THE WORD “OTHER” DOES NOT APPEAR, NOT EVEN IN NWT KIT. HMMMMMMMM.

BUT IS IT INSERTED BY GB & WT TRANSLATING COMMITTEE.

Here we see that if we removed the word [other], then Paul would be saying that the Father is going to reconcile ALL things in heaven and earth back to himself through Jesus.

NO – NO, JESUS RECONCILES EVERYTHING THROUGH HIMSELF, SEE THE CONTEXT OF BOTH VERSES AGAIN.

This would obviously include Jesus, for he was in heaven, as was Satan and the demons at the time of Paul's writing. [NO – PLEASE REREAD THE PASSAGE AGAIN.]  Why does Jesus need to be reconciled to God? He doesn't! How about Satan and the demons, are they ever going to be "reconciled back" to God? NO! Thus the insertion of the word [other] is absolutely necessary to impart a proper reading of the text.

NO IT IS NOT! SEE LAST COMMENTS – IT IS A HEALTH HAZARD IF YOU “ADD OR TAKE AWAY” FROM GOD’S WORD.

WE MUST TAKE THE “UNDERSTOOD” ITEMS OF GRAMMAR IN TO CONTEXT & NOT INSERT OUR OWN MEANING AS WE WILL CHANGE THE MEANING OF THE ORIGINAL MESSAGE.

Another place where we see the need for words to be inserted into the text so the translation can have a proper revealing of the original thought is found at John 1:11, which reads: "He came to his own home, but his own people did not take him in."

NO – WE DO NOT INSERT ANYTHING – BUT WE USE THE “UNDERSTOOD” GRAMMATICAL CONTEXT INTO THE ACCOUNT & USE THEM. THAT IS ALL THAT WE DO.

THE VERSE READS LIKE THIS IN KJV & NIV “HE CAME TO THAT WHICH WAS HIS OWN, BUT HIS OWN DID NOT RECEIVE HIM.”

MEANING THAT JESUS CAME TO HIS JEWISH PEOPLE & THEY DID NOT RECOGNIZE HIM IN THE FLESH EITHER. THEY DISOBEYED HIS WORDS WHILE HE WAS IN THE SPIRIT FORM A LA 40 YEARS ROAMING THE DESERT WITH MOSES ETC. JEWS ALWAYS WANTED TO BE LIKE OTHER NATIONS & HAVE A HUMAN KING - YET WHEN HE PRESENTED HIMSELF IN THE FLESH  THEY DENIED HIM AGAIN & DO TO THIS DAY.

In this verse, the words home and people are not in the Greek text. They are implied by the case and sentence structure of the Greek word for "own" in the text. (ho idios) However, the English translation needs the words "home" and "people" to be [inserted] into the text, in order to convey the full flavour of the idea being expressed in Greek, so the reader gets the point.

AS YOU CAN SEE FROM NIV & KJV RENDERING: THERE IS NO NEED TO INSERT ANYTHING IN TO THE MEANING OF THE STATEMENT. IT IS UNDERSTOOD WITHOUT THE WORDS BEING “INSERTED” IN.

JESUS CAME TO HIS OWN CREATION FROM HIS HEAVENLY REALM & RESIDED WITH THEM IN HUMAN FLESH & THE PEOPLE HE CREATED & CARED FOR REJECTED HIM. SO SIMPLE!

Thus, we are forced to conclude that the insertion of the word [other] in Colossians 1:16,17, is absolutely necessary in order to impart the correct understanding of the text concerning Jesus' role in his Father's plan to reconcile all [other] things to himself!

NO WE ARE “NOT FORCED” TO CONCLUDE THAT AT ALL. WE ARE ASKED TO “UNDERSTAND” THE “UNDERSTOOD” & NOT “INSERT” ANYTHING JUST BECAUSE IT DOES NOT MEET OUR TEACHING.

ALSO: IF WE ARE FORCED TO "INSERT" THE WORD OTHER IN COLOSSIANS - THEN WHY AREN'T WE FORCED TO INSERT IN JOHN 1: 3?

WOULD HAVE ANYTHING TO DO WITH THE FACT THAT IT WAS MISSED BY THE TRANSLATING COMMITTEE?? NOW PEOPLE ARE ASKED TO EXPLAIN THESE DIFFERENCES BY OTHERS & THEN PEOPLE MAKE UP GRAMMATICAL RULES SO TO SUIT THEM SELVES.

Jesus is indeed the firstborn of all creation in that he is Jehovah's first and only direct creation. [NO HE IS NOT – JESUS IS “PRE-EMINENT” OF THE FATHER] All [other] things that were created, were created through Jesus, God's firstborn. NO HE CREATED EVERYTHING. Thus, we conclude that, "all [other] things" that were created were different "types" of created things, in that they were done "through" Jesus by Jehovah, and not "directly" by Jehovah, as in the case of Jesus, his "only begotten son."

NO – FATHER DID NOT DO THE CREATING – HE GAVE ALL THE AUTHORITY TO HIS SON TO CREATE & HE DID.

AGAIN - IF THIS WERE SO THEN THE BIBLE IS TELLING US A LIE - AS JEREMIAH 10: 11-13 IS TELLING US THAT  god WHO DID NOT CREATE THE HEAVEN & EARTH WILL PERISH.

WILL JESUS PERISH & DIE?  THINK ABOUT IT FIRST - BEFORE COMING TO YOUR OWN CONCLUSION.

"because it is in him that all the fullness of the divine quality dwells bodily."  AS IT IS IN NIV:

“FOR IN CHRIST “ALL” THE FULLNESS OF THE “DEITY” LIVES IN BODILY FORM.”

Some translations say at this verse: "..in him all the fullness of the Godhead dwells bodily." Trinitarians thus conclude that Jesus is God because all the fullness of the Godhead is dwelling in him. Is this the case? SURE IS!

The Greek word translated "divine quality, or Godhead," is 'theotetos.' It means "divine quality, deity, divinity." Webster's New World Dictionary defines "divinity" as "the quality or condition of being divine, a divine being, deity, a divine quality."SEE IT MEANS THAT JESUS IS “DIVINE” THE WEBSTER'S AGREES WITH BIBLE.

Yes, "theotetos," is what is called an "abstract noun" and thus a quality! Jesus most certainly does possess all the fullness of divine quality or nature.

EVEN THE AUTHOR AGREES WITH IT IN THIS STATEMENT.

What does it mean to possess divine nature, or divine quality? Can others have it or does only God possess this? If Jesus is indeed God then this fullness of the divine quality would be intrinsic to his very being. Jesus would always posses it. Is this the case?

SURE IS WE HAVE SEEN IT BEFORE IN OTHER PASSAGES. LIKE ZAC 12: 10 - Malachi 3:1 - JOHN 1:1 - TITUS 2:13 etc.

Please note what Paul said at Colossians 1:19. There we read: "because [God] saw good for all fullness to dwell in him." This verse then tells us that it was God himself that saw good, or allowed the Son to possess this fullness of divine quality.

NO - NO - NO – GOD “SAW GOOD” & NOT “ALLOWED”. GOD ALLOWS US TO USE OUR FREE WILL, BUT NOT TO MAKE OURSELVES EQUAL TO “GOD”. THAT IS A SIN OF BLASPHEMY & PUNISHABLE BY DEATH.

The Greek word translated "saw good" is "eudokeo," and means: "decide, pleased, consider good, consent." Now the question is: "How could God see good, or decide, or consent [to] Jesus having all the fullness of the divine quality IF Jesus was already GOD, the Son, the second person of the trinity BY NATURE?" The answer is, he wasn't always divinity, or a divine being. For if we was, then Paul could NOT have written what he did in Colossians 1:19!

PAUL WAS INSPIRED BY HOLY SPIRIT & HOLY SPIRIT IS GOD & GOD DOES NOT LIE. PAUL SAID IT JUST AS HE WAS INSTRUCTED BY GOD.

WE HAVE SEEN IN PHILIPPIANS 2:6 - THAT "JESUS WAS GOD BY NATURE" - BUT HE DIDN'T CONSIDER IT A THING TO BOAST ABOUT - JUST AS HE SAID IT IN ISAIAH 40:2 & HE DIDN'T DO IT!

But some still say: "Regardless of how he got this nature, this still means he is God, because all the fullness of the divine quality, or nature is in him." Is this the case? Because Jesus has all the fullness of the divine quality or nature in him, does this make him God?  YES IT DOES!!

Look at 2 Peter 1:4 where we read: "Through these things he has freely given us the precious and very grand promises, that through these YOU may become sharers in divine nature, having escaped from the corruption that is in the world through lust." Yes, according to Peter, the disciples also become sharers in the divine nature. In fact Paul tells us this in the verse right after Colossians 2:9, where we read: "And so YOU are possessed of a fullness by means of him, who is the head of all government and authority."

OK LET’S SEE HOW THESE PASSAGES ARE READ IN FULL CONTEXT. FROM NIV, WE WILL START FROM VERSE 3

“HIS DIVINE POWER HAS GIVEN US EVERYTHING WE NEED FOR LIFE AND godliness THROUGH OUR KNOWLEDGE of him who called us by his own gory and goodness.4 THROUGH THESE HE HAS GIVEN US HIS VERY GREAT AND PRECIOUS PROMISES, SO THAT THROUGH THEM “YOU” MAY PARTICIPATE IN THE DIVINE NATURE AND ESCAPE THE CORRUPTION IN THE WORLD CAUSED BY EVIL DESIRES.”

PLEASE NOTE THAT IT STATES THAT“YOU” MAY “PARTICIPATE IN” DIVINE NATURE & “NOT BE” THE DIVINE NATURE. TOTALLY DIFFERENT MEANING.

WHAT THIS MEANS IS THIS – WHEN YOU COME TO MY HOME YOU MAY PARTICIPATE IN MY HOME IN EVERYTHING THAT I HAVE.

SAME APPLIES WITH US WHEN WE ARRIVE TO JESUS’ HOME. HE HAS SO MUCH THAT HE WANTS US TO SHARE IN HIS HOME WITH ALL THE GLORY THAT HIS FATHER HAS GIVEN HIM. JESUS’ IS NOT SELFISH & HE WANTS US TO SHARE WITH HIM IN EVERYTHING THAT IS HIS.

NOT JUST THE APOSTLES – BUT YOU ALSO.

So does this mean that they also are God? No. And neither is Jesus God because he has a divine nature.

YES HE IS & WE WILL SHARE WITH HIM ALL THE THINGS THAT HE HAS.

WE WILL NOT BE GOD, JUST AS YOU WOULDN’T BE AN “OWNER” OF MY HOME WHEN YOU COME TO MY PLACE, BUT YOU WOULD SHARE IN EVERYTHING THAT I CAN OFFER YOU.